A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse instruct the client to take prior to initiating postural drainage?
Complete oral hygiene.
Use an ibuterol inhaler.
Take pancrelipase.
Eat a meal.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B.
Choice A reason: Completing oral hygiene is important for overall health, especially for individuals with cystic fibrosis, as they are at a higher risk for dental problems due to thick mucus that can harbor bacteria. However, oral hygiene does not have a direct impact on the effectiveness of postural drainage. Postural drainage is a technique used to clear mucus from the lungs, and while maintaining oral hygiene is beneficial, it is not a prerequisite for this procedure.
Choice B reason: Using a bronchodilator, such as an ibuterol inhaler, is recommended before postural drainage because it helps to open the airways, making the procedure more effective. Bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, which can become constricted in conditions like cystic fibrosis. This relaxation allows for easier clearance of mucus during postural drainage.
Choice C reason: Pancrelipase is an enzyme supplement used to aid digestion in patients with cystic fibrosis, who often have pancreatic insufficiency. While taking pancrelipase is crucial for nutrient absorption, it is not specifically related to the respiratory treatment of postural drainage. Therefore, it is not necessary to take pancrelipase immediately before this procedure.
Choice D reason: Eating a meal before postural drainage is not recommended. The procedure involves placing the body in positions that facilitate the drainage of mucus from the lungs due to gravity. Having a full stomach can cause discomfort, increase the risk of vomiting, and may hinder the effectiveness of the drainage. It is best to perform postural drainage when the stomach is empty, either before meals or at least 1.5 hours after eating.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer:D. Troponin T test
Rationale:
A. Creatine kinase (CK) test: While creatine kinase isoenzymes, including CK-MB, can be elevated following myocardial infarction (MI), they are not specific to cardiac muscle injury. CK is found in various tissues throughout the body, so elevated levels can also indicate damage to skeletal muscle or brain tissue, among other sources.
B. Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test: CK-MB is a cardiac-specific isoform of creatine kinase, and elevated levels can indicate myocardial injury, particularly in the context of an acute MI. However, troponin T is a more sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury.
C. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test: Brain natriuretic peptide is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. While elevated BNP levels can indicate heart muscle strain or stress, they are not specific markers for acute myocardial infarction or early injury to the cardiac muscle.
D. Troponin T test: This is the correct answer. Troponin T is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle injury. Elevated troponin levels can be detected within hours of myocardial infarction and persist for several days, making it an essential tool in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndromes, including myocardial infarction. Troponin T is considered one of the gold standard biomarkers for detecting early injury to the cardiac muscle.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
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