A nurse is administering furosemide IV bolus to a client who has fluid volume excess.
The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as an indication that the medication has been effective?
Weight loss.
Decreased inflammation.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased pain.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A.
Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
Choice B is wrong because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide.
Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
Choice C is wrong because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness.
Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart.
Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy.
Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess.
Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Weight: A weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg per day is considered safe and effective for patients with fluid volume excess.
- Blood pressure: The target blood pressure for most patients with heart failure is less than 130/80 mmHg.
- Pain: The pain level should be assessed using a valid and reliable scale, such as the numeric rating scale or the visual analogue scale, and treated according to the patient’s preference and tolerance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Determine the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score. This is because the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool to assess the level of consciousness and neurological status of a client who has a closed head injury. The GCS score can help guide the priority of interventions and the need for further diagnostic tests.
Choice A is wrong because an MRI of the brain is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. An MRI may be indicated later to evaluate the extent of brain damage, but it is not an emergency procedure.
Choice B is wrong because mannitol IV bolus is a medication that reduces intracranial pressure (ICP) by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue. However, mannitol should not be administered before confirming the presence and degree of increased ICP, which can be done by measuring the GCS score and other vital signs.
Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for the client is not the first action to take for a client who has a closed head injury. A urinary catheter may be needed to monitor fluid balance and renal function, but it is not an urgent intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The leader allows the group to discuss whatever they would like to regarding their medications.
This is because a laissez-faire leadership style is characterized by minimal guidance and direction from the leader, and maximum freedom and autonomy for the followers.
The leader does not impose any rules or expectations on the group, and lets them decide how to manage their own learning and behavior.
Choice A is wrong because having group members vote on what they would like to learn about during the session is an example of a democratic leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
A democratic leader solicits input and feedback from the group, and makes decisions based on consensus and majority rule.
Choice B is wrong because lecturing about medication adverse effects to the group members is an example of an authoritarian leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
An authoritarian leader dictates what the group should do and how they should do it, without considering their opinions or preferences.
Choice D is wrong because encouraging group members to remain silent until questions are called for is an example of a paternalistic leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
A paternalistic leader treats the group as if they are incapable of making their own decisions, and assumes a protective and nurturing role over them.
Normal ranges for leadership styles are not applicable in this context, as different styles may be more or less effective depending on the situation and the goals of the group.
However, some general advantages and disadvantages of each style are:
- Laissez-faire: Advantages - fosters creativity, independence, and self-motivation; Disadvantages - may lead to chaos, confusion, and lack of accountability.
- Democratic: Advantages - promotes participation, collaboration, and satisfaction; Disadvantages - may be time-consuming, inefficient, and conflict-prone.
- Authoritarian: Advantages - provides clarity, direction, and control; Disadvantages - may cause resentment, resistance, and dependency.
- Paternalistic: Advantages - creates trust, loyalty, and commitment; Disadvantages - may inhibit growth, development, and empowerment.
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