A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying
Atrial fibrillation.
Complete heart block
First-degree atrioventricular block
Premature atrial complexes
The Correct Answer is C
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. “Would you like to speak to a spiritual advisor?”.
This statement shows respect for the client’s spirituality and offers support without imposing the nurse’s beliefs or values. Spirituality focuses on the significance and purpose of life and can help clients cope with depression and terminal illness.
Choice B is wrong because it implies that the client needs medication to deal with their feelings, which can be dismissive and insensitive.
Antianxiety medication may be appropriate for some clients, but it should not be the first option.
Choice C is wrong because it assumes that the client is ready to discuss advance directives, which may not be the case.
Advance directives are legal documents that specify the client’s wishes for end-of-life care, such as resuscitation, organ donation, or power of attorney.
The nurse should assess the client’s readiness and understanding before initiating this conversation.
Choice D is wrong because it suggests that the client is close to death and needs hospice care, which can be discouraging and frightening. Hospice care is an interdisciplinary team effort that provides palliative care for clients who have a terminal illness and a life expectancy of less than 6 months.
The nurse should explain the benefits of hospice care and obtain the client’s consent before making a referral.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B) I can visit my nephew who has chickenpox 5 days after the sores have crusted.
This statement indicates an understanding of infection prevention because it demonstrates knowledge about the contagious period of chickenpox. Visiting someone with chickenpox after the sores have crusted is a safe practice, as the person is no longer contagious.
The other options represent misconceptions about infection prevention:
A) Taking antibiotics for a viral infection is not effective, as antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not viruses.
C) This statement is identical to option B and is incorrect.
D) Cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy is generally not recommended due to the risk of toxoplasmosis, a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through cat feces. Pregnant individuals are advised to have someone else handle cat litter or to use gloves and wash their hands thoroughly if they must do it themselves.
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