A charge nurse is delegating care for a group of clients.
Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse?
Complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
Complete the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke
Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound
Perform an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound. This is because a licensed practical nurse (LPN) can perform tasks that require technical skills and have predictable outcomes, such as dressing changes. A sterile dressing change is also within the scope of practice of an LPN.
Choice A is wrong because complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires assessment, evaluation and critical thinking, which are beyond the scope of practice of an LPN. Discharge teaching is the responsibility of a registered nurse (RN) who can provide education and counseling to clients and families.
Choice B is wrong because completing the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke requires assessment and interpretation of neurological status, which are complex and unpredictable tasks that only an RN can perform. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness of a client based on eye opening, verbal response and motor response. A client who has an evolving stroke may have changes in their neurological status that require frequent monitoring and intervention by an RN.
Choice D is wrong because performing an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery requires comprehensive data collection, analysis and synthesis, which are advanced skills that only an RN can perform. An admission assessment involves obtaining a complete health history, performing a physical examination, identifying client needs and problems, and developing a plan of care.
A client who is scheduled for surgery may have complex and unpredictable needs that require specialized knowledge and judgment by an RN.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications. Tertiary prevention in healthcare involves measures taken to reduce the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects. This is done by helping people manage long-term, often-complex health problems and injuries in order to improve as much as possible their ability to function, their quality of life, and their life expectancy. In the context of an HIV clinic, reminding clients to take their medications can help manage the disease effectively and prevent complications.
Choice A rationale:
Educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations is incorrect because this is more aligned with primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of an illness or injury before the disease process begins.
Choice C rationale:
Providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise is incorrect as this is generally considered a part of primary prevention, promoting general health to prevent various diseases.
Choice D rationale:
Helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans is incorrect because this is typically associated with secondary prevention, which involves screening to identify diseases in the earliest stages.
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