A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Complete an incident report.
Check the client for indications of bleeding.
Monitor the client's aPTT levels
Notify the risk manager.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d. Evaluate functioning of the suction device.
Choice D rationale:
- Prompt assessment of the suction device is crucial to determine if it's functioning properly.If the suction is inadequate,it can lead to gastric contents accumulating and potentially causing vomiting.
- Assessing the suction device first allows for timely interventionif it's not working correctly,preventing further complications and discomfort for the client.
Choice A rationale:
- Replacing the NG tube might be necessary if it's dislodged or blocked, but it shouldn't be the immediate action.
- Evaluating the suction device first can help determine if the NG tube itself is the issue or if the problem lies with the suction.
Choice B rationale:
- Providing oral hygiene care is important for comfort and to prevent aspiration, but it's not the priority intervention in this situation.
- Addressing the cause of the vomiting, which could be related to suction malfunction, takes precedence.
Choice C rationale:
- Administering an antiemetic might be helpful to control nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the underlying cause.
- Evaluating the suction device first is essential to ensure proper gastric decompression and prevent further vomiting episodes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty. A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a small holder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
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