A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Complete an incident report.
Check the client for indications of bleeding.
Monitor the client's aPTT levels
Notify the risk manager.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, the nurse manager should include the following guideline:
A) Document the client’s condition every 15 min
Frequent documentation of the client's condition and the need for restraint is essential to monitor their well-being and ensure that restraints are used only when necessary. The other options are not recommended:
B) Requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive is not appropriate because restraints should only be used when there is an immediate risk to the patient or others, and obtaining a PRN prescription for restraints is generally not standard practice.
C) Attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails is not recommended because restraints should be used as a last resort, and there are specific guidelines for restraint application to ensure patient safety.
D) Removing the client's restraint every is not appropriate either. Restraints should only be removed when the client's condition improves, and alternatives to restraint have been explored, or when it's deemed necessary for the patient's safety and well-being following established protocols and guidelines. The option seems incomplete and does not specify the appropriate time frame for removal.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can cause shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, and seizures. Therefore, infusing dextrose 10% in water temporarily at the same rate as the TPN can prevent this adverse effect. Dextrose 10% in water is a hypertonic solution that contains 340 calories per liter and can maintain the client’s blood glucose level until the new TPN bag arrives.
Choice A is wrong because giving 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution would not provide enough calories or glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes but no calories or glucose.
Choice B is wrong because temporarily discontinuing the infusion would cause hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for the client.
Choice C is wrong because slowing the TPN infusion rate would also cause hypoglycemia, as the client would receive less calories and glucose than prescribed.
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