A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Complete an incident report.
Check the client for indications of bleeding.
Monitor the client's aPTT levels
Notify the risk manager.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
"Plan to take this medication with food." Is the correct statement. When providing instructions to an older adult client who has a seizure disorder and is prescribed phenytoin (an antiepileptic or anticonvulsant medication), the nurse should advise the client to take the medication with food. Phenytoin can cause gastrointestinal irritation, and taking it with food can help minimize this side effect.
Choice B reason:
"Plan to take this medication with antacids. “is not the appropriate instruction. Phenytoin should not be taken with antacids. Antacids can reduce the absorption of phenytoin, leading to decreased effectiveness of the medication. If antacids are needed for other reasons, they should be taken at least 2 hours before or after taking phenytoin.
Choice C reason:
"Limit foods that contain vitamin D while taking this medication. “This is not inappropriate instruction. There is no specific requirement to limit foods containing vitamin D while taking phenytoin. However, phenytoin may decrease the absorption of vitamin D, which could potentially affect the client's vitamin D levels. Therefore, it is essential for the client to have regular check-ups and possibly discuss the need for vitamin D supplementation with their healthcare provider.
Choice D reason:
"Limit foods that contain folic acid while taking this medication. “This is not the correct statement. Phenytoin can interfere with the absorption of folic acid (a B-vitamin). Long-term use of phenytoin may lead to folic acid deficiency. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to consume foods rich in folic acid and discuss the potential need for folic acid supplementation with their healthcare provider.
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