A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Complete an incident report.
Check the client for indications of bleeding.
Monitor the client's aPTT levels
Notify the risk manager.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Wound dehiscence can lead to infection, bleeding, and evisceration (protrusion of internal organs through the incision). The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and cover the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution.
Choice A is wrong because mild swelling under the sutures near the incisional line is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing. It does not indicate infection or dehiscence unless accompanied by other signs such as redness, warmth, pain, or purulent drainage.
Choice B is wrong because crusting of exudate on the incisional line is also a normal finding that indicates the formation of a scab.
A scab protects the wound from infection and helps it heal faster. The nurse should not remove the scab unless instructed by the provider.
Choice D is wrong because pink-tinged coloration on the incisional line is another normal finding that shows healthy granulation tissue.
Granulation tissue is new tissue that fills in the wound and helps it close. It is usually pink or red and moist.
The nurse should follow these general tips for postoperative abdominal incision care:
- Always wash your hands before and after touching your incisions.
- Inspect your incisions and wounds every day for signs your healthcare provider has told you are red flags or concerning.
- Look for any bleeding.
If the incisions start to bleed, apply direct and constant pressure to the incisions.
- Avoid wearing tight clothing that might rub on your incisions.
- Try not to scratch any itchy wounds.
- You can shower starting 48 hours after your operation but no scrubbing or soaking of the abdominal wounds in a tub.
- After the initial dressing from the operating room is removed, you can leave the wound open to air unless there is drainage or you feel more comfortable with soft gauze covering the wound.
- Surgical glue (Indermil) will fall off over a period of up to 2-3 weeks.
Do not put any topical ointments or lotions on the incisions.
- Do not rub over the incisions with a washcloth or towel.
- No tub baths, hot tubs, or swimming until evaluated at your clinic appointment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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