A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administer epinephrine subcutaneously. This is not the necessary action to be taken. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). However, in this case, the client is experiencing a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction, not an allergic reaction.
Choice B reason:
Place the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding. This is not the necessary action to be taken by the nurse. Proper disposal of biohazardous materials is essential, but in this situation, the nurse's priority is to address the client's condition and not the disposal of the blood bag
Choice C reason:
Documentation of the transfusion reaction is crucial for the client's medical history and for future reference. The nurse should record the client's signs and symptoms, the actions taken, and any other relevant information related to the reaction.
Choice D reason
Infuse 500 ml lactated Ringer's IV. This is not necessary action to be taken by the nurse because there is no indication for infusing lactated Ringer's solution in response to the transfusion reaction described. Treatment for febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions generally involves stopping the transfusion, administering antipyretics (like acetaminophen) if necessary, and providing supportive care as needed.
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A: Review the need for the indwelling urinary catheter daily.
This is correct because indwelling catheters should be removed as soon as possible to reduce the risk of urinary tract infection (UTI).
B: Place the drainage bag on the bed when transporting the client.
This is incorrect because the drainage bag should be kept below the level of the bladder and should not touch the floor to prevent the backflow of urine and contamination of the catheter.
C: Use soap and water to provide perineal care.
This is correct because soap and water can help to remove bacteria and debris from the meatus and prevent infection.
D: Encourage the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid daily.
This is incorrect because the client has a fluid restriction of 1000 mL daily due to heart failure. Excessive fluid intake can worsen the client’s condition and increase the workload of the heart.
E: Change the indwelling urinary catheter tubing every 3 days.
This is incorrect because changing the catheter tubing can increase the risk of infection by breaking the closed drainage system. The catheter tubing should only be changed when it is visibly soiled or malfunctioning.
F: Empty the drainage bag when it is half full.
This is incorrect because the drainage bag should be emptied at least every 8 hours or when it is one-third full to prevent back pressure and infection.
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