A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, administer a fluid bolus.
Choice A rationale:
Administering a fluid bolus is appropriate when a client’s urine output is low, which in this case is less than the minimum expected output of 30 mL/hr. The dark yellow color of the urine also suggests dehydration or concentrated urine, which can be addressed with increased fluid intake.
Choice B rationale:
Initiating continuous bladder irrigation is typically done to clear the urinary tract of blood clots or debris following urologic surgery, not for low urine output or dark urine. Therefore, this intervention is not indicated based on the given scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is an action taken when there is a suspicion of a urinary tract infection. The scenario does not provide evidence of infection, such as fever or cloudy urine with a strong odor, so this would not be the first intervention to anticipate.
Choice D rationale:
Clamping the catheter tubing is done in preparation for catheter removal or to assess if the client can void without the catheter. It is not an appropriate intervention for low urine output or dark urine and could potentially cause bladder distention or discomfort.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Increase dietary calcium. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can cause bone loss (osteoporosis) by reducing the absorption of calcium and increasing the excretion of calcium in the urine. Therefore, patients taking prednisone should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods or supplements to prevent bone loss and fractures.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone can cause weight gain, not weight loss, by increasing appetite and fluid retention. Patients taking prednisone should monitor their weight and limit their salt and calorie intake.
Choice C is wrong because prednisone should not be taken on an empty stomach, as it can cause stomach irritation, ulcers, or bleeding. Patients taking prednisone should take it with food or milk to protect their stomach.
Choice D is wrong because prednisone should not be scheduled at bedtime, as it can cause insomnia or difficulty sleeping. Patients taking prednisone should take it in the morning or early afternoon to avoid disrupting their sleep cycle.
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