A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client should keep the medication in the original container.
Dabigatran is a blood thinner that is used to prevent strokes or blood clots in people with atrial fibrillation, a type of irregular heartbeat. Dabigatran is sensitive to moisture and can lose its potency if exposed to humidity or heat. Therefore, it is important to store it in the original bottle or blister package that has a desiccant (drying agent) in the cap or cover. The client should also close the cap tightly after each use and keep the bottle away from excessive moisture, heat, and cold.
Choice A is wrong because storing the medication in the refrigerator can expose it to moisture and cause it to break down. Choice C is wrong because crushing the medication and mixing it with applesauce can alter its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D is wrong because the medication can be used up to 60 days after opening the bottle as long as it is stored properly. The normal dose of dabigatran for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation is 150 mg twice a day, unless the client has kidney problems or other factors that require a lower dose.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is b. Remove the device from the room.
Choice A rationale:
- Reporting the defect to the equipment maintenance staff is essential,but it's not the immediate priority.The primary concern is to eliminate the safety hazard posed by the frayed cord to prevent potential harm to the client and others.
- Delaying the removal of the device could lead to electrical shock,fire,or other serious consequences.
- Therefore,removing the device from the room takes precedence over reporting the defect.
Choice B rationale:
- Removing the device from the room is the most appropriate first action because it:
- Eliminates the immediate safety hazard.
- Prevents potential harm to the client and others.
- Protects the device from further damage.
- Ensures the safety of the environment.
- Demonstrates the nurse's prioritization of patient safety.
Choice C rationale:
- Initiating a requisition for a replacement CPM device is necessary to ensure the client's continued treatment.
- However,it's not the first action because it doesn't address the immediate safety concern.
- The nurse should first remove the faulty device and then initiate the process for obtaining a replacement.
Choice D rationale:
- Ensuring the device inspection sticker is current is a vital part of equipment maintenance.
- However,it's not relevant to the immediate safety issue of the frayed cord.
- The presence of a current inspection sticker doesn't guarantee the device's safety or functionality at that moment.
- The nurse must prioritize removing the hazard and then follow up with appropriate documentation and reporting.
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