A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Apply direct pressure to the puncture site.
Choice A rationale:
Applying intermittent pressure 2.5 cm (1 inch) below the percutaneous skin site is not the best approach. This method may not effectively control the bleeding and could potentially dislodge the introducer sheath.
Choice B rationale:
Applying direct pressure to the puncture site is the most effective way to control bleeding. Direct pressure helps to promote clot formation and reduce blood flow to the area, which is crucial in managing postoperative bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Elevating the affected extremity above the level of the heart is not appropriate in this situation. While elevation can reduce swelling, it does not address the immediate need to control active bleeding.
Choice D rationale:
Leaving the dressing undisturbed and notifying the physician immediately is not advisable. Immediate action to control the bleeding is necessary before notifying the physician. Delaying intervention could lead to significant blood loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition where the aorta is narrow, usually in the area where the ductus arteriosus inserts. This causes a decrease in blood flow to the lower body, resulting in weak or absent pulses in the femoral arteries.
The other choices are incorrect for the following reasons:
- Choice A, frequent nosebleeds, is not a typical sign of coarctation of the aorta.
Nosebleeds can be caused by many factors, such as dry air, allergies, trauma, or bleeding disorders.
- Choice B, upper extremity hypotension, is also not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta. In fact, patients with this condition may have high blood pressure in the upper extremities due to the increased resistance of the narrowed aorta.
- Choice D, increased intracranial pressure, is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
Increased intracranial pressure can be caused by various conditions that affect the brain, such as head injury, stroke, infection, or tumor.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse vary depending on age, sex, and health status.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg for adults; less than 95/65 mmHg for infants.
- Pulse: 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults; 100 to 160 beats per minute for infants.
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