A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select a site on the client’s dominant arm
Apply a tourniquet below the venipuncture site
Elevate the client’s arm prior to insertion
Choose a vein that is palpable and straight
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. The nurse should choose a vein that is palpable and straight for IV catheter insertion.
This will facilitate the insertion of the catheter and reduce the risk of complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, or hematoma. A straight vein will also allow the catheter to be inserted up to the hub, which reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter.
Choice A is wrong because selecting a site on the client’s dominant arm can interfere with the client’s mobility and increase the risk of dislodging the catheter. The nurse should choose a site on the client’s non-dominant arm, preferably on the hand or forearm.
Choice B is wrong because applying a tourniquet below the venipuncture site will impede blood flow and make it harder to locate a suitable vein. The nurse should apply a tourniquet above the venipuncture site, about 10 to 15 cm from the insertion site.
Choice C is wrong because elevating the client’s arm prior to insertion will decrease venous filling and make it harder to palpate a vein. The nurse should lower the client’s arm below the level of the heart to increase venous distension.
Normal ranges for IV catheter size and insertion angle depend on several factors, such as the type and duration of therapy, the condition and size of the vein, and the age and preference of the client.
In general, smaller gauge catheters (20 to 24) are preferred for peripheral IV therapy, and larger gauge catheters (14 to 18) are used for rapid fluid administration or blood transfusion. The insertion angle can vary from 10 to 30 degrees, depending on the depth and location of the vein.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Provide humidification of the room air. This is because humidification can help moisten the oral mucosa and reduce the discomfort of xerostomia. Xerostomia is a condition of dry mouth caused by reduced or absent saliva flow, which can occur after radiation therapy to the head and neck area.
Choice A is wrong because rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-based mouth wash can irritate the oral tissues and worsen xerostomia. Alcohol can also dehydrate the mouth and reduce saliva production.
Choice B is wrong because esophageal speech is a method of voice restoration after laryngectomy, not a treatment for xerostomia.
Esophageal speech involves swallowing air into the esophagus and releasing it to create sound.
It has nothing to do with saliva flow or dry mouth.
Choice C is wrong because saltine crackers are dry and hard to swallow without adequate saliva.
They can also scratch the oral mucosa and cause pain or bleeding. Offering the client saltine crackers between meals can aggravate xerostomia and increase the risk of choking.
Normal ranges for saliva flow vary depending on the method of measurement, but generally, a stimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.7 mL/min or an unstimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.1 mL/min is considered indicative of xerostomia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer:D. Troponin T test
Rationale:
A. Creatine kinase (CK) test: While creatine kinase isoenzymes, including CK-MB, can be elevated following myocardial infarction (MI), they are not specific to cardiac muscle injury. CK is found in various tissues throughout the body, so elevated levels can also indicate damage to skeletal muscle or brain tissue, among other sources.
B. Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test: CK-MB is a cardiac-specific isoform of creatine kinase, and elevated levels can indicate myocardial injury, particularly in the context of an acute MI. However, troponin T is a more sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury.
C. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test: Brain natriuretic peptide is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. While elevated BNP levels can indicate heart muscle strain or stress, they are not specific markers for acute myocardial infarction or early injury to the cardiac muscle.
D. Troponin T test: This is the correct answer. Troponin T is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle injury. Elevated troponin levels can be detected within hours of myocardial infarction and persist for several days, making it an essential tool in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndromes, including myocardial infarction. Troponin T is considered one of the gold standard biomarkers for detecting early injury to the cardiac muscle.
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