A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for clients in the emergency department.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include when teaching about interacting with a client who is aggravated, pacing, and speaking loudly?
Engage the panic alarm
Use a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client.
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”
Initiate seclusion protocol.
The Correct Answer is C
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”.
This is an example of a therapeutic communication technique that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express their emotions verbally rather than physically. It also shows empathy and respect for the client’s perspective.
Choice A is wrong because engaging the panic alarm is not the first action to take when interacting with an agitated client.
The nurse should first try to calm the client down by using verbal and nonverbal communication skills, such as maintaining eye contact, speaking in a calm and clear voice, and avoiding sudden movements or gestures.
Engaging the panic alarm should be done only if the client becomes violent or poses a threat to themselves or others.
Choice B is wrong because using a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client is not relevant to the situation.
This is a personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used to prevent exposure to infectious agents or body fluids, not to manage agitation.
Using a face shield with a mask may also increase the client’s anxiety or paranoia, as they may perceive it as a sign of hostility or fear.
Choice D is wrong because initiating seclusion protocol is not appropriate for a client who is agitated, pacing, and speaking loudly.
Seclusion is a restrictive intervention that involves isolating the client in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others.
It should be used only as a last resort when less restrictive measures have failed or are contraindicated, and only with a provider’s order and close monitoring.
Secluding an agitated client may escalate their behavior and violate their rights.
Normal ranges for agitation are not applicable, as agitation is not a quantifiable parameter.
However, some tools that can be used to assess agitation include the Richmond AgitationSedation Scale (RASS), which ranges from -5 (unarousable) to +4 (combative), and the Agitated Behavior Scale (ABS), which ranges from 14 (no agitation) to 56 (severe agitation).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
"This test will be repeated when your baby is 2 months old. “This is a false statement. Newborn genetic screening is usually performed shortly after birth. The test is not typically repeated when the baby is 2 months old, as it is meant to detect conditions early on, allowing for prompt intervention and management if necessary.
Choice B reason:
"Your baby will be given 2 ounces of water to drink prior to the test."This is a false statement. The baby does not need to drink water before the newborn genetic screening test. The test is usually performed by collecting a small blood sample from the baby's heel, and there is no need for the baby to drink water beforehand.
Choice C reason:
"This test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old. “This is the appropriate statement. The nurse should include the statement that newborn genetic screening should be performed after the baby is 24 hours old. Newborn genetic screening, also known as newborn screening or heel prick test, is a standard test performed on newborns to detect certain genetic, metabolic, and congenital disorders early on. The test is typically done by pricking the baby's heel to collect a small sample of blood, which is then analysed in a laboratory.
Choice D reason:
"A nurse will draw blood from your baby's inner elbow. “This is a false statement. The correct location for collecting the blood sample for newborn genetic screening is the baby's heel. The nurse will prick the baby's heel to obtain a few drops of blood, which will then be collected on a special filter paper for laboratory analysis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The nurse should determine if the client’s health care surrogate is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure. A health care surrogate is a person who is authorized to make health care decisions for a client who is unable to do so. The nurse has a legal and ethical responsibility to ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent for the surgery, which means that they have received adequate information about the procedure, its purpose, its risks, its benefits, and its alternatives.
Choice A is wrong because sending the unsigned informed consent form to the facility’s risk manager does not ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent. The risk manager is not involved in the consent process and cannot authorize the surgery without the surrogate’s consent.
Choice B is wrong because ensuring that the client’s family supports the provider’s decision for surgery is not the same as obtaining informed consent from the surrogate.
The family may have different opinions or preferences than the surrogate, and the surrogate may not agree with the provider’s decision. The nurse should respect the surrogate’s autonomy and authority to make decisions for the client.
Choice C is wrong because determining if the procedure is medically necessary for the client is not the nurse’s role.
The provider is responsible for determining the medical necessity of the surgery and explaining it to the surrogate. The nurse should not question or interfere with the provider’s judgment unless there is evidence of negligence or malpractice.
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