A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B, bradypnea. Bradypnea is abnormally slow breathing, which can be a sign of life-threatening respiratory depression caused by morphine. Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of morphine and can lead to coma and death if not treated promptly. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the child’s respiratory rate and oxygen saturation closely and be prepared to administer naloxone, an opioid antagonist, if needed.
Choice A, euphoria, is wrong because euphoria is a feeling of intense happiness or well-being that is a common side effect of morphine.
Euphoria is not a priority finding and does not indicate a serious complication of morphine.
Choice C, constipation, is wrong because constipation is a common and chronic side effect of morphine that affects the gastrointestinal system.
Constipation can cause discomfort and complications such as bowel obstruction, but it is not a priority finding compared to respiratory depression.
Choice D, sedation, is wrong because sedation is another common side effect of morphine that affects the central nervous system.
Sedation can impair the child’s level of consciousness and ability to respond to stimuli, but it is not as urgent as respiratory depression.
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