A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C: “Do you have thoughts of harming yourself?”.
This is the priority question for the nurse to ask the client because it assesses the client’s risk for suicide, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of conduct disorder. The nurse should use a direct and nonjudgmental approach when asking about suicidal ideation and plan.
Choice A: “How do you get along with your peers at school?” is wrong because it is not the most urgent question to ask the client.
While it is important to assess the client’s social relationships and possible peer rejection, this can be done after addressing the client’s safety and mental status.
Choice B: “Do you have a criminal record?” is wrong because it is not relevant to the client’s current condition and might make the client feel defensive or stigmatized.
The nurse should avoid asking questions that imply blame or judgment and focus on the client’s strengths and coping skills.
Choice D: “How do you manage your behavior?” is wrong because it is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the client in an emergency department setting.
This question might imply that the client is responsible for their conduct disorder, which is a complex and multifactorial mental health condition. The nurse should collaborate with the client and their family to develop a behavior management plan that involves positive reinforcement, limit setting, and consistent consequences.
Normal ranges: According to the DSM-5, conduct disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the rights of others or societal norms.
The symptoms of conduct disorder include aggression, deceitfulness, destruction of property, serious rule violations, and lack of remorse.
Conduct disorder can cause significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. The prevalence of conduct disorder is estimated to be 4% among children and adolescents.
The risk factors for conduct disorder include genetic factors, neurobiological factors, environmental factors, and psychological factors.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Use an ibuterol inhaler.
Choice A rationale:
Completing oral hygiene is important for overall health, but it is not specifically related to the preparation for postural drainage in cystic fibrosis patients. Postural drainage is a technique used to clear mucus from the lungs, and oral hygiene does not directly affect this process.
Choice B rationale:
Using a bronchodilator, such as an ibuterol inhaler, is recommended before postural drainage because it helps to open the airways, making the drainage process more effective. Bronchodilators are often used to relax the muscles around the airways, which can become constricted in conditions like cystic fibrosis.
Choice C rationale:
Taking pancrelipase is related to aiding digestion in cystic fibrosis patients who have pancreatic insufficiency. While it is an important part of the overall management of cystic fibrosis, it is not directly related to the preparation for postural drainage.
Choice D rationale:
Eating a meal before postural drainage is not recommended because a full stomach can make the process uncomfortable and less effective. It is generally advised to perform postural drainage on an empty stomach to ensure that the mucus can be cleared from the lungs more easily.
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