A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Applying an orthotic to the client’s foot.
An orthotic is a device that supports or corrects the function of a body part.
In this case, an orthotic can help prevent foot drop, which is a common contracture deformity in immobile patients.
Foot drop occurs when the muscles that lift the foot become weak or paralyzed, causing the foot to hang down at the ankle. An orthotic can keep the foot in a neutral position and prevent shortening of the calf muscles and Achilles tendon.
Choice A is wrong because a trochanter wedge is used to prevent external rotation of the hip, not contracture. A trochanter wedge is a triangular-shaped pillow that is placed between the legs to keep them parallel and aligned.
Choice C is wrong because a towel roll under the neck is used to maintain proper cervical alignment, not contracture. A towel roll can prevent hyperextension of the neck and support the natural curve of the spine.
Choice D is wrong because a pillow under the knees can actually cause contracture of the knee joint by keeping it in a flexed position. A pillow under the knees can also reduce blood flow to the lower extremities and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis.
Contracture is a permanent tightening of the muscles, tendons, skin, and surrounding tissues that causes the joints to shorten and stiffen.
Contracture can limit the range of motion and function of the affected body part. Contracture can be caused by inactivity, scarring, or diseases that affect the muscles or nerves. Prevention of contractures requires early diagnosis and initiation of physical medicine approaches such as passive range of motion exercises and splinting before contractures are present or while contractures are mild.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved. Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence, unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
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