A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.

Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?

A, B, C, D, and H. Here is why:.

• A. Heart rate: The client’s heart rate is elevated at 118/min, which could indicate blood loss, dehydration, pain, anxiety, or infection. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the cause and intervene as needed.
• B. Current medications: The client is taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily PRN for arthritis pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastric irritation, ulceration, and bleeding. This finding requires immediate follow-up to evaluate the client’s pain level, medication use, and possible alternatives to NSAIDs.
• C. Blood pressure: The client’s blood pressure is low at 90/50 mm Hg, which could indicate hypovolemia, shock, or cardiac dysfunction. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client’s fluid status, perfusion, and organ function.
• D. Stool results: The client’s stool tested positive for occult blood and H. pylori bacteria. Occult blood indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which could be related to the client’s abdominal pain and weight loss. H. pylori is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease, which can also cause bleeding and pain. This finding requires immediate follow-up to confirm the diagnosis and initiate treatment with antibiotics and acid-suppressing drugs.

• H. Hemoglobin and hematocrit: The client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit are low at 9.1 g/dL and 27%, respectively. These values indicate anemia, which could be caused by chronic blood loss, nutritional deficiency, or bone marrow suppression. This finding requires immediate follow-up to determine the etiology and severity of the anemia and provide appropriate therapy such as blood transfusion, iron supplementation, or erythropoietin.

The other findings are not as urgent as the ones above:.

• E. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate is normal at 18/min. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or hypoxia.
• F. WBC count: The client’s WBC count is normal at 6,700/mm3. There is no indication of infection or inflammation.
• G. Temperature: The client’s temperature is slightly elevated at 37.5° C (99.5° F), but not enough to warrant immediate concern. It could be due to stress, dehydration, or a mild infection. The nurse should monitor the temperature trend and report any significant changes or signs of sepsis.

The correct answer is choice C. Blow into the meter as hard and quickly as possible.

This is because a peak flow meter measures how fast you can push air out of your lungs when you blow out as hard and as fast as you can.

This is called peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) or peak expiratory flow (PEF). It shows how open the airways are in the lungs and can help detect early signs of worsening asthma.

Choice A is wrong because maintaining a semi-Fowler’s position during testing is not necessary. You can sit or stand up straight, but make sure you do it the same way each time.

Choice B is wrong because placing tongue on the mouthpiece of the meter can block the air flow and affect the accuracy of the measurement. You should close your lips tightly on the mouthpiece instead.

Choice D is wrong because recording the average of the readings is not recommended.

You should record the highest of the three readings on a sheet of paper, calendar or in your asthma diary. This is your daily peak flow.

Normal ranges for peak flow vary depending on age, height, gender and race. You can use a chart or calculator to find out your predicted normal peak flow based on these factors. However, it is more important to find out your personal best peak flow by performing peak flow testing twice a day for two weeks when your asthma is under good control. Your personal best peak flow will be used to create your asthma action plan with your healthcare provider.