A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.
Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Choice A reason: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a rapid, irregular heartbeat and an absence of distinct P waves on the ECG, which is not indicated by the information provided.
Choice B reason: First-degree AV block is indicated by a prolonged PR interval without affecting the overall heart rate, aligning with the client’s PR interval of 0.24 seconds.
Choice C reason: Premature ventricular contraction would show an abnormal QRS complex on the ECG, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Choice D reason: Sinus bradycardia is defined by a heart rate less than 60 bpm, which does not apply here as the client’s heart rate is 69/min, within the normal range of 60-100 bpm.
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