A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason
Act as a spokesperson to provide information to the media in inappropriate. During a disaster, the nurse manager or designated hospital spokesperson usually handles communication with the media. The unit nurse's primary focus is on patient care and ensuring the safety and well-being of the clients on their unit.
Choice B reason
Recommending to the provider a list of clients for early discharge is the action that should be taken by the nurse. During a disaster, the responsibility of the unit nurse includes recommending to the healthcare provider a list of clients who may be considered for early discharge. This decision is based on the nurse's assessment of the clients' conditions and the need to create additional capacity for incoming patients who require urgent medical attention.
Choice C reason:
Determining the need for additional providers is inappropriate. The determination of the need for additional providers during a disaster is usually made at a higher level, such as by the nursing supervisor, nurse manager, or hospital administration. The unit nurse may collaborate with the nursing leadership to assess staffing needs and provide input, but the final decision is typically made at a higher level.
Choice D reason
Deciding which clients should be transported for a higher level of care is not the responsibility of the nurse. Decisions about transferring clients for a higher level of care during a disaster are usually made collaboratively among the healthcare team, including the healthcare providers and nursing leadership. The unit nurse may provide valuable input about the clients' conditions, but the decision is not solely the responsibility of the unit nurse.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason
Setting the IV infusion pump to administer the blood over 6 hours is not the recommended rate for administering packed RBCs. Blood transfusions are typically given more rapidly, usually within 2 to 4 hours. The specific rate may vary depending on the client's condition and the provider's order.
Choice B reason
Administering the blood via a 21-gauge IV needle is not typically related to the administration of the packed RBCs. The appropriate gauge of the IV needle for blood transfusions depends on the client's condition and the type of transfusion. Larger-gauge needles are often used for blood transfusions to allow for a faster flow rate and prevent haemolysis of the blood cells.
Choice C reason
Checking the client's vital signs from the previous shift prior to the initiation of the transfusion is not sufficient for ensuring the client's safety during the blood transfusion. The nurse should assess the client's current vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, before initiating the transfusion. Monitoring vital signs is essential during the transfusion to detect any adverse reactions or changes in the client's condition.
Choice D reason
Rush the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride prior to the transfusion is the correct answer. When preparing to administer a blood transfusion to an adult client with chronic anaemia, the nurse should rush the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) prior to the transfusion. This process is called priming the tubing.
Priming the tubing helps remove any residual air from the tubing and ensures that the blood transfusion is administered smoothly without introducing air into the client's bloodstream. Air embolisms can be a serious complication, and priming the tubing with normal saline helps prevent this risk.

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