A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Explain to the child what will happen when the abuse is reported.
This is because the nurse should provide honest and accurate information to the child about the reporting process and the possible outcomes, such as legal actions, investigations, or removal from the home.
This can help the child feel more prepared and less anxious about what will happen next. The nurse should also reassure the child that the abuse is not their fault and that they did the right thing by telling someone.
Choice A is wrong because reassuring the child that no one will be told about the abuse is unethical and illegal.
The nurse has a mandatory duty to report any suspected or confirmed cases of child abuse to the appropriate authorities, such as child protective services or law enforcement. Keeping the abuse a secret can also endanger the child’s safety and well-being, as well as prevent them from receiving the necessary medical and psychological care.
Choice B is wrong because ensuring that multiple nurses are present for the physical examination can increase the child’s fear, embarrassment, or discomfort.
The nurse should minimize the number of people involved in the examination and only include those who are essential for providing care or collecting evidence. The nurse should also explain to the child what will be done during the examination and obtain their consent before proceeding.
Choice D is wrong because using leading statements to obtain information from the child can influence their responses and affect the validity of their testimony.
The nurse should use open-ended questions and avoid suggesting or implying any details about the abuse. The nurse should also document the child’s statements verbatim and avoid interpreting or paraphrasing them.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. “Would you like to speak to a spiritual advisor?”.
This statement shows respect for the client’s spirituality and offers support without imposing the nurse’s beliefs or values. Spirituality focuses on the significance and purpose of life and can help clients cope with depression and terminal illness.
Choice B is wrong because it implies that the client needs medication to deal with their feelings, which can be dismissive and insensitive.
Antianxiety medication may be appropriate for some clients, but it should not be the first option.
Choice C is wrong because it assumes that the client is ready to discuss advance directives, which may not be the case.
Advance directives are legal documents that specify the client’s wishes for end-of-life care, such as resuscitation, organ donation, or power of attorney.
The nurse should assess the client’s readiness and understanding before initiating this conversation.
Choice D is wrong because it suggests that the client is close to death and needs hospice care, which can be discouraging and frightening. Hospice care is an interdisciplinary team effort that provides palliative care for clients who have a terminal illness and a life expectancy of less than 6 months.
The nurse should explain the benefits of hospice care and obtain the client’s consent before making a referral.
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