A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C, malaise.
Malaise is a general feeling of discomfort, weakness, or illness that can be a sign of infection. According to the health search result from Focus Medica , bacterial pneumonia is an infection of the air sacs in one or both lungs that causes symptoms such as cough with phlegm, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.
Malaise is one of the symptoms that may follow these signs of infection.
Choice A, drooling, is wrong because it is not a typical symptom of bacterial pneumonia.
Drooling can be caused by other conditions, such as sore throat, dental problems, or neurological disorders.
Choice B, tinnitus, is wrong because it is not a symptom of bacterial pneumonia either.
Tinnitus is a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears that can be caused by exposure to loud noise, ear infections, or other ear problems.
Choice D, rhinorrhea, is wrong because it is not specific to bacterial pneumonia.
Rhinorrhea is a runny nose that can be caused by many factors, such as allergies, colds, or sinus infections.
Rhinorrhea can sometimes occur with viral pneumonia, but not usually with bacterial pneumonia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation

This is because after puncturing the skin and the vein, the nurse needs to advance the catheter into the vein with the finger hub to ensure proper placement and prevent complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.
Choice A is wrong because flushing the catheter with saline should be done after securing the catheter to the skin with a transparent dressing and attaching a primed piece of extension tubing to the catheter.
Choice B is wrong because retracting the stylet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and releasing the tourniquet from the client’s arm.
Choice C is wrong because releasing the tourniquet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and before retracting the stylet.
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