A nurse is caring for a toddler who has a fractured right femur and is in Bryant traction.
When determining that the traction is appropriately assembled, the nurse should observe which of the following?
A padded sling is under the knee of the affected leg.
Skin straps maintain the leg in an extended position.
Weights are attached to a pin that is inserted into the femur.
The buttocks are elevated slightly off of the bed.
The Correct Answer is D
When determining that Bryant's traction is appropriately assembled, the nurse should observe that the buttocks is elevated slightly off of the bed.
In Bryant traction, both of the patient’s limbs are suspended in the air vertically at a ninety-degree angle from the hips and knees slightly flexed.
Choice A is incorrect because a padded sling is not used under the knee of the affected leg in Bryant traction.
Choice B is incorrect because skin straps are not used to maintain the leg in an
extended position in Bryant traction.
Choice C is incorrect because weights are not attached to a pin that is inserted into the femur in Bryant traction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
An epiphyseal fracture is a fracture that occurs in the epiphyseal plate, which is the layer of cartilage between the end of a long bone and the start of the bone shaft.
This type of fracture is most common in children and adolescents, as their bones are still growing and the epiphyseal plate is not yet fused to the bone shaft.
Because this is where new bone develops, injuries to this area can cause the plate to close prematurely, jeopardizing bone growth.
Choice B, “Bone marrow can be lost through the fracture,” is incorrect because
bone marrow is not lost through an epiphyseal fracture.
Choice C, “The younger the child the longer the healing process will take,” is incorrect because younger children generally heal faster than older children or adults.
Choice D, “The blood supply to the bone is disrupted,” is incorrect because an
epiphyseal fracture does not necessarily disrupt the blood supply to the bone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer ischoice C.
Choice A rationale:
A lead level of 10 mcg/dL is above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL and would require more immediate follow-up and intervention, not just rescreening in one year.
Choice B rationale:
A lead level of 18 mcg/dL is significantly elevated and would necessitate immediate medical intervention and frequent monitoring, rather than waiting a year for rescreening.
Choice C rationale:
A lead level of 4 mcg/dL is slightly above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL.While it is concerning, it may be appropriate to rescreen in one year if no other risk factors are present.
Choice D rationale:
A lead level of 44 mcg/dL is dangerously high and requires urgent medical treatment and frequent follow-up, not just rescreening in one year.
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