A nurse is caring for a toddler who has a fractured right femur and is in Bryant traction.
When determining that the traction is appropriately assembled, the nurse should observe which of the following?
A padded sling is under the knee of the affected leg.
Skin straps maintain the leg in an extended position.
Weights are attached to a pin that is inserted into the femur.
The buttocks are elevated slightly off of the bed.
The Correct Answer is D
When determining that Bryant's traction is appropriately assembled, the nurse should observe that the buttocks is elevated slightly off of the bed.
In Bryant traction, both of the patient’s limbs are suspended in the air vertically at a ninety-degree angle from the hips and knees slightly flexed.
Choice A is incorrect because a padded sling is not used under the knee of the affected leg in Bryant traction.
Choice B is incorrect because skin straps are not used to maintain the leg in an
extended position in Bryant traction.
Choice C is incorrect because weights are not attached to a pin that is inserted into the femur in Bryant traction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.Infants with spina bifida, including those with myelomeningocele, have an increased risk of rectal anomalies, so avoiding rectal temperatures is essential. The correct and safe method of temperature measurement for these infants is typically axillary.
B. Placing the infant in a side-lying positionis not recommended for a child with myelomeningocele. The preferred position isprone to avoid pressure on the sac and reduce the risk of rupture and infection.
C.Maintains a dry dressing over the sac: While the sac should be kept covered, it is typically kept moist with sterile saline-soaked gauze to prevent it from drying out and to minimize the risk of infection.
D.Performs range of motion on the infant's hips: Range of motion exercises might be indicated later on, but initially, the focus is on protecting the sac and preventing complications.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Pediculosis capitis.
Choice D rationale: Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of head lice, which causes symptoms such as white flakes that do not brush off the hair easily and a rash on the back of the neck. These symptoms are due to the lice feeding on the scalp and laying eggs (nits), which can cause itching and irritation.
Choice A rationale: Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, typically caused by bacterial or fungal infections. While it can cause a rash, it is not characterized by white flakes in the hair.
Choice B rationale: Tinea capitis, also known as ringworm of the scalp, is a fungal infection that causes scaly, itchy patches on the scalp. It may lead to hair loss in the affected areas, but it does not typically cause white flakes that do not brush off the hair.
Choice C rationale: Impetigo contagiosa is a highly contagious bacterial skin infection that causes blisters or sores on the skin. It does not involve white flakes in the hair and primarily affects exposed skin rather than the scalp.
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