A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and receiving fentanyl via patient-controlled analgesia. The patient has a prescription for naloxone.
What is the purpose of naloxone?
To suppress respiratory secretions
To block the effects of opioids on the central nervous system
To treat nausea
To treat urinary retention
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Naloxone does not have any direct effect on respiratory secretions. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression.
While opioids can cause a decrease in respiratory secretions, this is not the primary reason for administering naloxone.
It is important to note that naloxone can actually worsen respiratory secretions in some patients, particularly those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or other respiratory conditions.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is a medication that is specifically designed to block the effects of opioids on the central nervous system (CNS).
It is a competitive antagonist, which means that it binds to opioid receptors in the brain and prevents opioids from binding to those receptors.
This can reverse the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension.
Naloxone is often used to treat opioid overdose, but it can also be used to prevent opioid-induced respiratory depression in patients who are receiving opioids for pain relief.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is not effective in treating nausea.
In fact, it can actually worsen nausea in some patients.
This is because naloxone can block the effects of opioids in the brain, and opioids can sometimes have a nausea-relieving effect.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone is not effective in treating urinary retention.
Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioids, but it is not caused by the effects of opioids on the CNS. Urinary retention is typically caused by the effects of opioids on the bladder muscles.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
Diuretics promote fluid loss, increasing the risk of fluid volume deficit.
Heart failure can lead to fluid retention, but diuretic therapy is often used to manage this excess fluid.
However, in this case, the patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which suggests that their fluid status is being actively managed.
Therefore, while this patient is at risk for fluid volume deficit, they are not the most likely candidate among the options presented.
Rationale for Choice B:
Gastroenteritis can lead to fluid loss through vomiting and diarrhea.
However, this patient is receiving oral fluids, which helps to replenish lost fluids and electrolytes.
As long as the patient is able to tolerate oral fluids and is not experiencing excessive fluid losses, they are not at significant risk for fluid volume deficit.
Rationale for Choice C:
End-stage kidney disease can impair the kidneys' ability to regulate fluid balance.
However, dialysis is a treatment that helps to remove excess fluid and waste products from the body.
Therefore, while this patient is at risk for fluid volume imbalances, they are receiving treatment to manage this risk.
Rationale for Choice D:
NPO status means that the patient has been instructed to have nothing by mouth. This means that the patient has not been able to consume any fluids since midnight.
Even in the absence of excessive fluid losses, this prolonged period of fluid restriction can lead to dehydration and fluid volume deficit.
Therefore, this patient is the most likely to be experiencing fluid volume deficit among the options presented.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Intractable pain is pain that is persistent and does not respond to usual pain management methods. While angina can be intractable in some cases, it does not typically manifest as pain in the arm and jaw. Moreover, the patient in this scenario has not yet undergone pain management efforts, so it's premature to classify the pain as intractable.
Choice B rationale:
Phantom pain is pain that is felt in a part of the body that has been amputated or is no longer there. The patient in this scenario has not experienced any amputations, so phantom pain is not a valid explanation for the arm and jaw pain.
Choice C rationale:
Referred pain is pain that is felt in a part of the body that is different from the source of the pain. This is the most likely explanation for the arm and jaw pain in this patient. The heart and the arm and jaw share nerve pathways, so pain signals from the heart can be misinterpreted by the brain as coming from these other areas. This is a common phenomenon in patients with angina.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping pain is a type of pain that is often described as a muscle tightening or squeezing sensation. It is not typically associated with angina. While angina can sometimes cause chest tightness, it's not characterized by cramping in the arm and jaw.
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