A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that will be discharged from the hospital in the next hour.
The nurse notes that the client is unable to provide self-injections at home.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect for discharge to manage the DVT at home?
Insulin.
Warfarin (Coumadin).
Heparin.
Enoxaparin (Lovenox).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Azithromycin can prolong the QT interval, leading to potential cardiac arrhythmias. Patients with a history of prolonged QT interval or other heart conditions should be monitored closely.
Choice B rationale
Constipation is not commonly associated with azithromycin use. Gastrointestinal side effects may include diarrhea or nausea but not constipation.
Choice C rationale
While tachycardia can be a side effect of some medications, azithromycin is more commonly associated with QT prolongation rather than causing increased heart rate directly.
Choice D rationale
Hyperkalemia is not typically a concern with azithromycin. Electrolyte imbalances are not a common side effect of this antibiotic.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale
Withholding the medication and notifying the provider is the appropriate intervention when a client's blood pressure is significantly low, such as 80/60 mmHg. Administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker, in this scenario could further lower the blood pressure, causing more harm. The provider needs to be informed to reassess the treatment plan.
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