A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin via oral (PO) route.
Two hours after the administration of warfarin, the client reports having dark tarry stools and petechiae.
Based on the client's presenting symptoms, which of the following options is an antidote for warfarin toxicity?

Choice A rationale

While metformin is commonly used as a first-line medication for type 2 diabetes, this choice does not specifically address a critical safety concern related to metformin.

Choice B rationale

Metformin can interact with contrast dyes used in imaging studies, increasing the risk of acute renal failure due to lactic acidosis. Patients need to be aware of this interaction to avoid potential complications.

Choice C rationale

Metformin is used to lower blood glucose levels, not increase them. This choice is incorrect.

Choice D rationale

While metformin is associated with less weight gain compared to other diabetes medications, this choice does not address the critical interaction with contrast dye.

Choice A rationale

Opioid toxicity triad includes symptoms of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma. These symptoms are indicative of a morphine sulfate overdose.

Choice B rationale

Orthostatic hypotension is a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice C rationale

Hypertension is high blood pressure. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice D rationale

Abstinence syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. It is not the appropriate complication for the client's presentation. .