A client has a new prescription for naloxone (Narcan). Which of the following statements indicates the correct therapeutic use of this medication?
This medication is used as a reversal of the effects of opioids.
This medication is used to treat abstinence syndrome.
This medication is used as a pain reliever.
This medication is used to treat hypoglycemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that works by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, displacing opioids, and reversing their effects such as respiratory depression and sedation.
Choice B rationale
Abstinence syndrome is treated with medications that manage withdrawal symptoms rather than reversing opioid effects, which is not naloxone's primary use.
Choice C rationale
Naloxone does not have analgesic properties, meaning it does not relieve pain; it is specifically used to counteract opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale
Naloxone is not used to treat hypoglycemia, which is a condition of low blood sugar levels, managed by glucose administration.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by mimicking estrogen's beneficial effects on bone density.
Choice B rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent and treat blood clots, not osteoporosis.
Choice C rationale
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias, not osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale
Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots and not indicated for osteoporosis treatment.
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