A nurse is educating a client about a new prescription for morphine.Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about this medication?
Morphine has a low potential for abuse, causing little euphoria.
Morphine acts as an agonist on the mu and kappa receptors.
Morphine has a less analgesic effect compared to butorphanol.
Morphine is only used to prevent fevers.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Morphine has a high potential for abuse due to its euphoric effects and the risk of developing physical dependence and addiction with prolonged use.
Choice B rationale
Morphine acts as an agonist on the mu and kappa receptors in the central nervous system, providing analgesic effects by altering the perception of and response to pain.
Choice C rationale
Morphine is a potent analgesic that is more effective than butorphanol, which is a mixed agonist-antagonist with less potency and a ceiling effect on pain relief.
Choice D rationale
Morphine is primarily used for pain management and is not indicated for preventing fevers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Celecoxib does not inhibit the histamine response. Histamine is involved in allergic reactions, and celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that targets specific enzymes involved in inflammation.
Choice B rationale
Celecoxib specifically inhibits COX-2, an enzyme involved in the inflammation pathway. This selective inhibition helps reduce inflammation and pain without significantly affecting COX-1, which is protective for the stomach lining.
Choice C rationale
COX-1 is not the primary target of celecoxib. Inhibition of COX-1 can lead to gastrointestinal side effects, which celecoxib aims to minimize by selectively inhibiting COX-2 instead.
Choice D rationale
Celecoxib does not inhibit beta receptors. Beta receptors are involved in cardiovascular responses, and beta blockers are used for conditions like hypertension, not inflammation.
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