A nurse is caring for a client with a specific phobia.
Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding phobias?
"Phobias are characterized by persistent and irrational fear.".
"Phobias can be caused by biological factors only.".
"Phobias can be diagnosed based on physical symptoms.".
"Phobias can be managed with medication alone.".
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
"Phobias are characterized by persistent and irrational fear" (Choice A) is an accurate statement. Phobias are defined by the presence of an intense and irrational fear of a specific object or situation. This fear is persistent and often leads to avoidance behaviors, which can significantly impact the individual's daily life.
Choice B rationale:
"Phobias can be caused by biological factors only" (Choice B) is an inaccurate statement. Phobias can have various causes, including both biological and psychological factors. While there may be genetic predispositions to certain phobias, psychological factors, such as traumatic experiences or learned behaviors, can also contribute to the development of phobias.
Choice C rationale:
"Phobias can be diagnosed based on physical symptoms" (Choice C) is an inaccurate statement. Phobias are typically diagnosed based on the individual's reported symptoms, such as intense fear and avoidance behaviors. There are no specific physical symptoms that directly indicate the presence of a phobia.
Choice D rationale:
"Phobias can be managed with medication alone" (Choice D) is an inaccurate statement. Medication alone is not considered the primary treatment for phobias. While medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or benzodiazepines may be prescribed to alleviate anxiety symptoms, the most effective treatment for phobias is psychotherapy, particularly exposure therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy. These therapies address the root causes of the phobia and help individuals learn to manage their fear.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A bedside commode is positioned near the bed. Positioning a bedside commode near the bed is appropriate for a client with heart failure and COPD who may have mobility issues or difficulty walking to the bathroom. It promotes safety and convenience for the client.
Choice B rationale:
A full pitcher of water is on the bedside table. While it's essential to keep clients with heart failure adequately hydrated, having a full pitcher of water within easy reach might encourage excessive fluid intake, which can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. However, this choice is not an immediate risk requiring intervention.
Choice C rationale:
The client is lying in a supine position in bed. A client with heart failure and COPD should not be lying in a supine position because it can exacerbate respiratory distress and increase the workload of the heart. This is an observation that requires immediate intervention, such as repositioning the client to an upright or semi-fowler's position.
Choice D rationale:
A saline lock is present in the right forearm. The presence of a saline lock is a standard precaution in a hospitalized client and does not require immediate intervention unless there are specific issues with it, such as signs of infection or dislodgement. It does not pose an immediate harm to the client.
Choice E rationale:
A low sodium diet tray was brought to the room. A low sodium diet is crucial for managing heart failure because excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and exacerbate symptoms. Ensuring that the client follows the prescribed diet is essential for their well-being, and any deviations may require immediate intervention.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Stopping the heparin infusion immediately is essential when the client's aPTT is significantly elevated (in this case, 120 seconds). A prolonged aPTT indicates a higher risk of bleeding, and discontinuing the heparin infusion is a crucial step in preventing further bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Administering protamine sulfate is necessary when a client on heparin therapy experiences excessive bleeding or if the aPTT is significantly elevated. Protamine sulfate acts as a heparin antagonist and can reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the healthcare provider of the significantly prolonged aPTT is essential because it may indicate a need for adjustments in the heparin dosage or therapy. The provider can determine the appropriate course of action based on the client's clinical condition.
Choice D rationale:
Drawing a prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) level is not necessary in this situation. PT and INR are more relevant parameters when assessing clients on warfarin therapy, not heparin.
Choice E rationale:
Monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding is crucial when the aPTT is prolonged, as it indicates a higher risk of bleeding. This action allows for early detection and intervention to prevent complications.
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