A nurse is caring for a client who was exposed to anthrax.
Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
Fluconazole
Tobramycin
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Fluconazole Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat and prevent fungal infections. It works by stopping the growth of certain types of fungus. However, it is not effective against bacterial infections such as anthrax.
Choice B rationale:
Tobramycin Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used to treat various types of bacterial infections, particularly Gramnegative infections. It works by stopping the growth of bacteria. However, it is not typically used to treat anthrax.
Choice C rationale:
Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for the treatment of a number of bacterial infections. This includes bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, certain type of infectious diarrhea, respiratory tract infections, skin infections, typhoid fever, and urinary tract infections, among others. For the treatment of anthrax, ciprofloxacin is one of the antibiotics that could be used. It works by killing the anthrax or by stopping the anthrax from growing. When the anthrax can’t grow anymore, it dies.
Choice D rationale:
Vancomycin Vancomycin is an antibiotic used to treat a number of bacterial infections. It is recommended intravenously as a treatment for complicated skin infections, bloodstream infections, endocarditis, bone and joint infections, and meningitis caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. However, it is not typically used to treat anthrax.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["50 "]
Explanation
The question is about calculating the volume of phenytoin oral solution that the nurse should administer per dose. The client is prescribed 250 mg of phenytoin and the available solution has a concentration of 25 mg/5 mL.
Let’s calculate the volume step by step:
Step 1: Identify the prescribed dose and the concentration of the available medication. The prescribed dose is 250 mg and the concentration of the available medication is 25 mg/5 mL.
Step 2: Set up the calculation. We want to find out how many mL correspond to the prescribed dose. We can set up the calculation as follows: (Prescribed dose ÷ Concentration) × Volume.
Step 3: Substitute the known values into the calculation. This gives us: (250 mg ÷ 25 mg/5 mL).
Step 4: Perform the division operation first due to the order of operations (BIDMAS/BODMAS). This gives us: (250 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL).
Step 5: Perform the final calculation. This gives us: 50 mL.
So, the nurse should administer 50 mL of the phenytoin oral solution per dose.
Please note that this calculation assumes that the prescribed dose (250 mg) is to be administered in one go. If the dose is to be split over the day, the volume to be administered would change accordingly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Shaking the insulin vial vigorously is not recommended. It can lead to the formation of bubbles, which can affect the accuracy of the dose. Instead, insulin vials should be gently rolled between the hands to mix.
Choice B rationale:
Injecting insulin into the abdominal area is indeed a recommended practice. The abdomen is a preferred site for insulin injection because it has a faster absorption rate compared to other areas. This can help to more effectively regulate blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale:
Exercise typically lowers blood glucose levels, so insulin doses may need to be reduced to prevent hypoglycemia. Clients should monitor their blood glucose closely and adjust insulin as directed by their healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale:
Freezing unopened insulin vials is not advised. Freezing can disrupt the insulin structure, rendering it ineffective. Insulin should be stored in a refrigerator at a temperature between 2°C and 8°C (36°F and 46°F). Once opened, it can be kept at room temperature for up to 28 days.
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