A nurse is caring for a client who is starting to take aspirin 81 mg daily. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for the client's development of an aspirin-induced ulcer?
The client has a history of alcohol use disorder but is currently sober
The client recently had a norovirus infection
The client smokes one pack of cigarette per day
The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is C
Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of aspirin-induced ulcers. It can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and compromise the integrity of the gastric mucosa. Smoking can also impair the healing process and increase the risk of complications associated with ulcers.
While the other factors mentioned in the options may have their own health implications, smoking is specifically associated with an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers. Therefore, the nurse should identify the client's smoking habit as a risk factor for the development of an aspirin-induced ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
When planning care for a client who had a myocardial infarction and is receiving thrombolytic therapy with an IV infusion of alteplase, the nurse should include the intervention of monitoring for changes in the client's level of consciousness.
Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication used to break down blood clots in certain medical emergencies, such as acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) or ischemic stroke. One of the potential complications of thrombolytic therapy, including alteplase, is bleeding. The medication's action of breaking down blood clots can also affect the body's natural clotting mechanisms, increasing the risk of bleeding.
Bleeding in the brain is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication associated with thrombolytic therapy. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client for any signs of intracranial bleeding, such as changes in the level of consciousness, confusion, severe headache, slurred speech, or weakness on one side of the body.
Let's go through the other options:
A. Administer aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever: While aspirin is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction, it is not specifically indicated for fever. Acetaminophen is the preferred antipyretic medication for fever management in most cases, and it does not interfere with the action of thrombolytic therapy.
B. Ambulate the client as often as tolerated: While early ambulation is beneficial for clients with myocardial infarction, it may not be appropriate during thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy carries an increased risk of bleeding, and ambulation may be limited or contraindicated during the treatment period, depending on the client's overall condition and bleeding risk.
C. Administer a sodium phosphate enema for constipation: The administration of a sodium phosphate enema is not a specific intervention related to thrombolytic therapy or myocardial infarction. Bowel management is important for client comfort and overall well-being, but it is not a priority intervention in the immediate care of a client undergoing thrombolytic therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Flumazenil is the antidote for diazepam, which is a benzodiazepine. Flumazenil is a selective antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines and is commonly used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or to reverse sedation after procedures.
Naloxone (A) is the antidote for opioid overdose and would not be appropriate for reversing the effects of diazepam.
Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic medication used to increase heart rate and is not specific to the reversal of diazepam sedation.
Neostigmine (D) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents and is not indicated for reversing the effects of diazepam.
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