A nurse is caring for a client who is starting to take aspirin 81 mg daily. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for the client's development of an aspirin-induced ulcer?
The client has a history of alcohol use disorder but is currently sober
The client recently had a norovirus infection
The client smokes one pack of cigarette per day
The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is C
Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of aspirin-induced ulcers. It can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and compromise the integrity of the gastric mucosa. Smoking can also impair the healing process and increase the risk of complications associated with ulcers.
While the other factors mentioned in the options may have their own health implications, smoking is specifically associated with an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers. Therefore, the nurse should identify the client's smoking habit as a risk factor for the development of an aspirin-induced ulcer.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should include lightheadedness as an adverse effect in the teaching for a client who has a new prescription for atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication used to treat various conditions, including hypertension and certain heart conditions. One of the common side effects of beta-blockers is orthostatic hypotension, which can cause lightheadedness or dizziness when the client stands up from a sitting or lying position.
Let's go through the other options:
B. Tachycardia: Tachycardia is not an adverse effect of atenolol. In fact, atenolol is used to treat tachycardia by slowing down the heart rate.
C. Dry mouth: Dry mouth is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications rather than beta-blockers like atenolol.
D. Bronchodilation: Bronchodilation is not an adverse effect of atenolol. In contrast, atenolol can cause bronchoconstriction (narrowing of the airways) in some individuals, particularly those with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
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