A nurse is caring for a client who is starting to take aspirin 81 mg daily. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for the client's development of an aspirin-induced ulcer?
The client has a history of alcohol use disorder but is currently sober
The client recently had a norovirus infection
The client smokes one pack of cigarette per day
The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is C
Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of aspirin-induced ulcers. It can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and compromise the integrity of the gastric mucosa. Smoking can also impair the healing process and increase the risk of complications associated with ulcers.
While the other factors mentioned in the options may have their own health implications, smoking is specifically associated with an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers. Therefore, the nurse should identify the client's smoking habit as a risk factor for the development of an aspirin-induced ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat fluid volume excess by promoting diuresis. One of the expected outcomes of furosemide administration is an increased urinary output as excess fluid is eliminated from the body. Therefore, if the medication has been effective, the nurse would expect to see an increased urinary output as a result of the diuretic effect.
Increased respiratory rate (B) is not an expected outcome of furosemide administration. It may occur in some cases due to increased fluid elimination and potential electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
Decreased blood pressure (C) is a possible outcome of furosemide administration due to the diuretic effect and subsequent reduction in fluid volume. However, it is not the most specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this case.
Increased pulse (D) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of furosemide. In fact, furosemide can sometimes cause a decrease in heart rate due to its impact on fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The nurse should report a creatinine level of 2 mg/dl to the provider as a potential adverse effect of captopril. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used to treat congestive heart failure and hypertension. One of the side effects of ACE inhibitors, including captopril, is the potential to cause kidney problems, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels.
An increase in serum creatinine may indicate impaired kidney function, and it is essential to monitor kidney function regularly in clients taking ACE inhibitors. Elevated creatinine levels can suggest reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and impaired kidney function, which may require adjustments in medication dosage or further evaluation and management.
Let's go through the other options:
A. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) 4.000/ mm^3: An absolute neutrophil count of 4.000/ mm^3 is within the normal range, so it is not an adverse effect of captopril that requires immediate reporting.
B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) 90 ng/L: A brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 90 ng/L is used to assess heart failure severity. While BNP levels can be helpful in managing congestive heart failure, a BNP level of 90 ng/L is not an adverse effect of captopril that requires immediate reporting.
C. Sodium 140 mEq/l: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it is not an adverse effect of captopril that requires immediate reporting.
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