A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving meperidine. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment before administering the medication?
Urinary retention
Vomiting
Respiratory rate
Level of consciousness
The Correct Answer is C
A. Urinary retention: While urinary retention can be a side effect of meperidine and other opioids, it is not the priority assessment before administering the medication. Urinary retention is a concern but is not immediately life-threatening compared to other potential side effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression. Assessing urinary retention is important, but it is not the primary concern in this situation.
B. Vomiting: Vomiting can also be a side effect of opioids, including meperidine. While it is essential to assess for vomiting and its potential impact on the client's overall condition, it is not the priority assessment before administering the medication. Vomiting can be managed, and the nurse should address it as needed. However, the priority assessment is one that can affect the client's immediate safety and well-being, such as respiratory rate and potential respiratory depression.
C. Respiratory rate: This is the correct answer. The priority assessment before administering meperidine is the client's respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, leading to reduced breathing and inadequate ventilation. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows the nurse to detect any signs of respiratory distress or inadequate breathing, enabling them to intervene promptly to prevent serious complications.
D. Level of consciousness: While assessing the client's level of consciousness is essential for overall assessment and monitoring, it is not the priority assessment before administering meperidine. Respiratory depression due to opioid use can occur even when the client is conscious. However, if respiratory depression occurs, it can lead to a decrease in consciousness and potentially unconsciousness, making the assessment of respiratory rate more critical to prevent such complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should expect angioedema as one of the manifestations of anaphylaxis in a client experiencing an allergic reaction to an antibiotic. Angioedema is a severe swelling that occurs beneath the skin, typically affecting the face, lips, tongue, throat, or other body parts. It is a result of the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators in response to the allergen.
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and affect multiple body systems. In addition to angioedema, other common manifestations of anaphylaxis include:
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Difficulty breathing or wheezing due to bronchospasm
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Hives or urticaria, which are itchy raised skin rashes
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Severe itching or tingling sensation
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Rapid and weak pulse
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Low blood pressure leading to hypotension
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Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea
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Feeling of impending doom or anxiety
Let's go through the other options:
A. Hypertonic reflexes: This is not a manifestation of anaphylaxis. "Hypertonic reflexes" are not typically associated with allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Hypertonic reflexes refer to increased muscle tone, but they are not part of the usual presentation of anaphylaxis.
B. Increase in systolic blood pressure: Anaphylaxis usually leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. The decrease in blood pressure can be severe and result in shock, which is a life-threatening condition.
D. Urinary retention: Urinary retention is not a common manifestation of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis primarily affects the respiratory and circulatory systems, leading to airway constriction, difficulty breathing, and cardiovascular collapse. Urinary retention is not directly related to the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
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