A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic. Which of the following manifestations of anaphylaxis should the nurse expect?

Hypertonic reflexes

increase in systolic blood pressure

Angioedema

Urinary retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The nurse should expect angioedema as one of the manifestations of anaphylaxis in a client experiencing an allergic reaction to an antibiotic. Angioedema is a severe swelling that occurs beneath the skin, typically affecting the face, lips, tongue, throat, or other body parts. It is a result of the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators in response to the allergen.

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and affect multiple body systems. In addition to angioedema, other common manifestations of anaphylaxis include:

Difficulty breathing or wheezing due to bronchospasm
Hives or urticaria, which are itchy raised skin rashes
Severe itching or tingling sensation
Rapid and weak pulse
Low blood pressure leading to hypotension
Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea
Feeling of impending doom or anxiety

Let's go through the other options:

A. Hypertonic reflexes: This is not a manifestation of anaphylaxis. "Hypertonic reflexes" are not typically associated with allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Hypertonic reflexes refer to increased muscle tone, but they are not part of the usual presentation of anaphylaxis.

B. Increase in systolic blood pressure: Anaphylaxis usually leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. The decrease in blood pressure can be severe and result in shock, which is a life-threatening condition.

D. Urinary retention: Urinary retention is not a common manifestation of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis primarily affects the respiratory and circulatory systems, leading to airway constriction, difficulty breathing, and cardiovascular collapse. Urinary retention is not directly related to the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.

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Correct Answer is ["18.8"]

Explanation

To calculate the rate at which the IV pump should deliver dopamine, we can follow these steps:

Step 1: Convert the weight of the client from pounds to kilograms.

220 lb ÷ 2.2 = 100 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number)

Step 2: Calculate the total dose of dopamine per minute.

5 mcg/kg/min × 100 kg = 500 mcg/min

Step 3: Convert the dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).

500 mcg/min ÷ 1000 = 0.5 mg/min

Step 4: Determine the infusion rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr).

The total volume of the solution is 250 mL.

The total dose of dopamine is 400 mg.

So, the infusion rate is (0.5 mg/min ÷ 400 mg) × 250 mL = 0.3125 mL/min.

Step 5: Convert the infusion rate from mL/min to mL/hr.

0.3125 mL/min × 60 min/hr = 18.75 mL/hr (rounded to the nearest tenth).

Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 18.8 mL/hr (rounded to the nearest tenth).

A. Hgb 14 g/dL B. WBC count 10,000/mm3 C. INR 2.0 D. Platelets 150,000/mm3

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.

B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.

C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.

D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic. Which of the following manifestations of anaphylaxis should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["18.8"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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