A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic. Which of the following manifestations of anaphylaxis should the nurse expect?

Hypertonic reflexes

increase in systolic blood pressure

Angioedema

Urinary retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The nurse should expect angioedema as one of the manifestations of anaphylaxis in a client experiencing an allergic reaction to an antibiotic. Angioedema is a severe swelling that occurs beneath the skin, typically affecting the face, lips, tongue, throat, or other body parts. It is a result of the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators in response to the allergen.

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and affect multiple body systems. In addition to angioedema, other common manifestations of anaphylaxis include:

Difficulty breathing or wheezing due to bronchospasm
Hives or urticaria, which are itchy raised skin rashes
Severe itching or tingling sensation
Rapid and weak pulse
Low blood pressure leading to hypotension
Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea
Feeling of impending doom or anxiety

Let's go through the other options:

A. Hypertonic reflexes: This is not a manifestation of anaphylaxis. "Hypertonic reflexes" are not typically associated with allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Hypertonic reflexes refer to increased muscle tone, but they are not part of the usual presentation of anaphylaxis.

B. Increase in systolic blood pressure: Anaphylaxis usually leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. The decrease in blood pressure can be severe and result in shock, which is a life-threatening condition.

D. Urinary retention: Urinary retention is not a common manifestation of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis primarily affects the respiratory and circulatory systems, leading to airway constriction, difficulty breathing, and cardiovascular collapse. Urinary retention is not directly related to the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of aspirin-induced ulcers. It can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and compromise the integrity of the gastric mucosa. Smoking can also impair the healing process and increase the risk of complications associated with ulcers.

While the other factors mentioned in the options may have their own health implications, smoking is specifically associated with an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers. Therefore, the nurse should identify the client's smoking habit as a risk factor for the development of an aspirin-induced ulcer.

A. Lorazepam 2.5mg PO qhs before bed B. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO QD at hs C. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO every 8 hours as needed for anxiety D. Lorazepam 2.50 mg PO Q 8 hours for anxiety

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Lorazepam 2.5mg PO qhs before bed: This transcription suggests a fixed dose to be taken before bed (qhs = every bedtime), which does not align with the "as needed" or PRN (pro re nata) instruction for anxiety.

B. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO QD at hs: This suggests that the medication should be taken once daily (QD) at bedtime (hs = at hour of sleep), which again is not appropriate for as-needed (PRN) use in anxiety.

C. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO every 8 hours as needed for anxiety: This transcription correctly indicates that the lorazepam is to be taken as needed for anxiety, with a dose of 2.5 mg. However, this also suggests it can be taken every 8 hours, which is more of a standard timing than PRN use. But, it is still the most accurate option for a PRN order.

D. Lorazepam 2.50 mg PO Q 8 hours for anxiety:This prescription is incorrect because it implies the medication should be taken every 8 hours regardless of need, which conflicts with the as-needed (PRN) nature of the order.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic. Which of the following manifestations of anaphylaxis should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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