A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who received isoflurane. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Intake and output
Non verbal pain cues
Bowel sounds
Blood pressure
The Correct Answer is D
A. Intake and output: Monitoring intake and output is essential in the postoperative care of a client to assess fluid balance and kidney function. However, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment in this situation is related to the potential cardiovascular side effect of isoflurane, which is hypotension. Hypotension can have immediate and significant implications for the client's perfusion and overall well-being, requiring prompt attention and intervention.
B. Non-verbal pain cues: Assessing for pain is important in the postoperative period to ensure adequate pain management and comfort for the client. However, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment at this time is related to the potential cardiovascular impact of the anesthesia, which is blood pressure. Addressing hypotension takes precedence over pain assessment as it poses a more immediate threat to the client's well-being.
C. Bowel sounds: Assessing bowel sounds is part of a comprehensive postoperative assessment to monitor the return of bowel function after surgery. While it is important, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment in this situation is related to the potential cardiovascular side effect of the anesthesia, which is blood pressure. Monitoring and managing hypotension is of greater concern in the immediate postoperative period.
D. Blood pressure: This is the correct answer. The priority assessment for a client who received isoflurane in the PACU is the blood pressure. Isoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic that can cause hypotension (low blood pressure). Monitoring the client's blood pressure is crucial to promptly identify and address any hypotension, as it can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Addressing blood pressure deviations is essential for the client's cardiovascular stability and overall recovery in the PACU.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Urinary retention: While urinary retention can be a side effect of meperidine and other opioids, it is not the priority assessment before administering the medication. Urinary retention is a concern but is not immediately life-threatening compared to other potential side effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression. Assessing urinary retention is important, but it is not the primary concern in this situation.
B. Vomiting: Vomiting can also be a side effect of opioids, including meperidine. While it is essential to assess for vomiting and its potential impact on the client's overall condition, it is not the priority assessment before administering the medication. Vomiting can be managed, and the nurse should address it as needed. However, the priority assessment is one that can affect the client's immediate safety and well-being, such as respiratory rate and potential respiratory depression.
C. Respiratory rate: This is the correct answer. The priority assessment before administering meperidine is the client's respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, leading to reduced breathing and inadequate ventilation. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows the nurse to detect any signs of respiratory distress or inadequate breathing, enabling them to intervene promptly to prevent serious complications.
D. Level of consciousness: While assessing the client's level of consciousness is essential for overall assessment and monitoring, it is not the priority assessment before administering meperidine. Respiratory depression due to opioid use can occur even when the client is conscious. However, if respiratory depression occurs, it can lead to a decrease in consciousness and potentially unconsciousness, making the assessment of respiratory rate more critical to prevent such complications.

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