A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who received isoflurane. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Intake and output

Non verbal pain cues

Bowel sounds

Blood pressure

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Intake and output: Monitoring intake and output is essential in the postoperative care of a client to assess fluid balance and kidney function. However, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment in this situation is related to the potential cardiovascular side effect of isoflurane, which is hypotension. Hypotension can have immediate and significant implications for the client's perfusion and overall well-being, requiring prompt attention and intervention.

B. Non-verbal pain cues: Assessing for pain is important in the postoperative period to ensure adequate pain management and comfort for the client. However, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment at this time is related to the potential cardiovascular impact of the anesthesia, which is blood pressure. Addressing hypotension takes precedence over pain assessment as it poses a more immediate threat to the client's well-being.

C. Bowel sounds: Assessing bowel sounds is part of a comprehensive postoperative assessment to monitor the return of bowel function after surgery. While it is important, it is not the priority assessment when the client has received isoflurane in the PACU. The priority assessment in this situation is related to the potential cardiovascular side effect of the anesthesia, which is blood pressure. Monitoring and managing hypotension is of greater concern in the immediate postoperative period.

D. Blood pressure: This is the correct answer. The priority assessment for a client who received isoflurane in the PACU is the blood pressure. Isoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic that can cause hypotension (low blood pressure). Monitoring the client's blood pressure is crucial to promptly identify and address any hypotension, as it can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Addressing blood pressure deviations is essential for the client's cardiovascular stability and overall recovery in the PACU.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.

B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.

C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.

D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.

A. Naloxone B. Atropine C. Flumazenil D. Neostigmine

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Flumazenil is the antidote for diazepam, which is a benzodiazepine. Flumazenil is a selective antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines and is commonly used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or to reverse sedation after procedures.

Naloxone (A) is the antidote for opioid overdose and would not be appropriate for reversing the effects of diazepam.

Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic medication used to increase heart rate and is not specific to the reversal of diazepam sedation.

Neostigmine (D) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents and is not indicated for reversing the effects of diazepam.

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