A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?

Hgb 14 g/dL

WBC count 10,000/mm3

INR 2.0

Platelets 150,000/mm3

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.

B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.

C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.

D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with a magnesium level of 3.2 mEq/L has a higher-than-normal magnesium level, indicating hypermagnesemia. The nurse should expect to administer calcium gluconate.

Calcium gluconate is the antidote for hypermagnesemia, as it works to antagonize the effects of magnesium on the body. By administering calcium gluconate, the nurse can help counteract the effects of excess magnesium and normalize the client's magnesium levels.

Let's go through the other options:

B. Calcitonin: Calcitonin is not used to treat hypermagnesemia. Calcitonin is a hormone that regulates calcium and phosphorus levels in the body. It is used in certain conditions, such as hypercalcemia (high calcium levels), but it is not indicated for hypermagnesemia.

C. Magnesium oxide: Magnesium oxide is a form of magnesium supplement, and it is not appropriate for a client with hypermagnesemia, as it would further increase the magnesium level, exacerbating the condition.

D. Magnesium sulphate: Magnesium sulfate is also not appropriate for a client with hypermagnesemia, as it would further elevate the magnesium levels in the body. Magnesium sulfate is often used to treat magnesium deficiency or as a tocolytic agent to prevent premature labor.

A. Lorazepam 2.5mg PO qhs before bed B. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO QD at hs C. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO every 8 hours as needed for anxiety D. Lorazepam 2.50 mg PO Q 8 hours for anxiety

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Lorazepam 2.5mg PO qhs before bed: This transcription suggests a fixed dose to be taken before bed (qhs = every bedtime), which does not align with the "as needed" or PRN (pro re nata) instruction for anxiety.

B. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO QD at hs: This suggests that the medication should be taken once daily (QD) at bedtime (hs = at hour of sleep), which again is not appropriate for as-needed (PRN) use in anxiety.

C. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO every 8 hours as needed for anxiety: This transcription correctly indicates that the lorazepam is to be taken as needed for anxiety, with a dose of 2.5 mg. However, this also suggests it can be taken every 8 hours, which is more of a standard timing than PRN use. But, it is still the most accurate option for a PRN order.

D. Lorazepam 2.50 mg PO Q 8 hours for anxiety:This prescription is incorrect because it implies the medication should be taken every 8 hours regardless of need, which conflicts with the as-needed (PRN) nature of the order.

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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a magnesium level of 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has anxiety and a prescription for oral lorazepam PRN. Which of the following is the correct way to transcribe the prescription into the electronic medical record?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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