A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?
Hgb 14 g/dL
WBC count 10,000/mm3
INR 2.0
Platelets 150,000/mm3
The Correct Answer is C
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
TPN is a form of nutrition given intravenously to provide essential nutrients when a client is unable to consume an adequate oral diet. One of the potential adverse effects of TPN is fluid overload, which can manifest as peripheral edema. The presence of 2+ peripheral pitting edema indicates the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's fluid balance closely and assess for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, to prevent complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of aspirin-induced ulcers. It can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and compromise the integrity of the gastric mucosa. Smoking can also impair the healing process and increase the risk of complications associated with ulcers.
While the other factors mentioned in the options may have their own health implications, smoking is specifically associated with an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers. Therefore, the nurse should identify the client's smoking habit as a risk factor for the development of an aspirin-induced ulcer.
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