A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?
Hgb 14 g/dL
WBC count 10,000/mm3
INR 2.0
Platelets 150,000/mm3
The Correct Answer is C
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the client receiving long-term treatment with oral doses of prednisone for the development of osteoporosis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can lead to decreased bone density and increase the risk of fractures. Prolonged use of prednisone can interfere with calcium absorption and increase bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis.
Hypoglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. In fact, prednisone can cause hyperglycemia and increase the risk of developing diabetes.
Hyperreflexia (B) is not typically associated with prednisone use. Hyperreflexia is an exaggerated reflex response and is not a common adverse effect of corticosteroid therapy.
Inflammatory bowel disease (D) is not an adverse effect of prednisone. In fact, prednisone is often used as a treatment for inflammatory bowel disease to reduce inflammation and symptoms.
Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for the development of osteoporosis when receiving long-term treatment with oral doses of prednisone.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
The nurse should plan to take the following actions:
A.Verify the prescription: Before administering any medication, the nurse must verify the prescription to ensure accuracy, appropriateness, and that it matches the provider's order.
Regarding option B, administering the medication at 1000, 1400, 1800, and 2200 may not be appropriate. The prescription states that ampicillin should be administered every 6 hours. The nurse should administer the medication at equally spaced intervals throughout the day. If the medication is prescribed every 6 hours, the appropriate administration times would be 0600, 1200, 1800, and 2400. However, the question does not provide sufficient information to determine the exact administration times, so option B cannot be definitively selected.
C. Assess the client for an allergy to penicillin: Since ampicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client for any history of allergies to penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics. A penicillin allergy could lead to a severe allergic reaction, so it is crucial to identify any potential allergies before administering the medication.
D. Document giving the medications: After administering the ampicillin, the nurse should document the administration in the client's medical record, including the time, dose, route, and any relevant observations or assessments.
E. Obtain a sputum for culture and sensitivity: The client's new prescription for ampicillin may be related to an infection. To ensure appropriate and effective treatment, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is necessary. This will help identify the specific bacteria causing the respiratory infection and determine which antibiotics will be most effective in treating it.
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