A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV ciprofloxacin to treat a urinary tract infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Nausea and vomiting
Daytime drowsiness
Tendon pain when walking
Photosensitivity
The Correct Answer is C
When assessing a client receiving ciprofloxacin, the nurse should prioritize reporting tendon pain when walking to the provider. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that can rarely cause tendonitis or tendon rupture, particularly in the Achilles tendon. Tendon pain, especially when associated with difficulty walking, can be indicative of a serious adverse effect and requires immediate attention and evaluation by the provider.
Nausea and vomiting (A) are common side effects of ciprofloxacin but are typically not considered urgent or life-threatening. They can often be managed with supportive care measures and may not require immediate intervention.
Daytime drowsiness (B) is not typically associated with ciprofloxacin and may be unrelated to the medication. It should be assessed and reported if it persists or is severe, but it is not a priority finding specifically related to ciprofloxacin administration.
Photosensitivity (D) is a known side effect of ciprofloxacin, but it is not typically considered a priority finding unless it is severe or causing significant discomfort. Adequate sun protection measures can help manage photosensitivity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Lorazepam 2.5mg PO qhs before bed: This transcription suggests a fixed dose to be taken before bed (qhs = every bedtime), which does not align with the "as needed" or PRN (pro re nata) instruction for anxiety.
B. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO QD at hs: This suggests that the medication should be taken once daily (QD) at bedtime (hs = at hour of sleep), which again is not appropriate for as-needed (PRN) use in anxiety.
C. Lorazepam 2.5 mg PO every 8 hours as needed for anxiety: This transcription correctly indicates that the lorazepam is to be taken as needed for anxiety, with a dose of 2.5 mg. However, this also suggests it can be taken every 8 hours, which is more of a standard timing than PRN use. But, it is still the most accurate option for a PRN order.
D. Lorazepam 2.50 mg PO Q 8 hours for anxiety:This prescription is incorrect because it implies the medication should be taken every 8 hours regardless of need, which conflicts with the as-needed (PRN) nature of the order.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. History of asthma:Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and does not affect the airways or cause bronchospasm, unlike beta-blockers, which can exacerbate asthma.
B. History of heart failure:Verapamil has negative inotropic effects, meaning it decreases the strength of heart contractions. This can exacerbate heart failure, particularly in clients with reduced ejection fraction (systolic heart failure). It is generally contraindicated in clients with severe heart failure as it can worsen symptoms.
C. Systolic BP 110 mm Hg:While verapamil can cause a drop in blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg is not an absolute contraindication.
D. A blood creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (approximately 0.6–1.2 mg/dL for adults). Verapamil is not contraindicated in clients with normal renal function.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.