A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin/sulbactam 15 g via intermittent IV bolus, Available is ampicillin-sulbactam 1.5 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/h? Mound the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies in not use a trailing zero)
The Correct Answer is ["200 mL\/h"]
To determine the infusion rate in mL/h, we need to divide the total volume (100 mL) by the total time (30 minutes) and then convert the result to hours.
100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min
To convert minutes to hours, we multiply by 60:
3.33 mL/min * 60 min/h = 199.8 mL/h
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver 200 mL/h.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
When planning care for a client who had a myocardial infarction and is receiving thrombolytic therapy with an IV infusion of alteplase, the nurse should include the intervention of monitoring for changes in the client's level of consciousness.
Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication used to break down blood clots in certain medical emergencies, such as acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) or ischemic stroke. One of the potential complications of thrombolytic therapy, including alteplase, is bleeding. The medication's action of breaking down blood clots can also affect the body's natural clotting mechanisms, increasing the risk of bleeding.
Bleeding in the brain is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication associated with thrombolytic therapy. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client for any signs of intracranial bleeding, such as changes in the level of consciousness, confusion, severe headache, slurred speech, or weakness on one side of the body.
Let's go through the other options:
A. Administer aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever: While aspirin is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction, it is not specifically indicated for fever. Acetaminophen is the preferred antipyretic medication for fever management in most cases, and it does not interfere with the action of thrombolytic therapy.
B. Ambulate the client as often as tolerated: While early ambulation is beneficial for clients with myocardial infarction, it may not be appropriate during thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy carries an increased risk of bleeding, and ambulation may be limited or contraindicated during the treatment period, depending on the client's overall condition and bleeding risk.
C. Administer a sodium phosphate enema for constipation: The administration of a sodium phosphate enema is not a specific intervention related to thrombolytic therapy or myocardial infarction. Bowel management is important for client comfort and overall well-being, but it is not a priority intervention in the immediate care of a client undergoing thrombolytic therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the client receiving long-term treatment with oral doses of prednisone for the development of osteoporosis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can lead to decreased bone density and increase the risk of fractures. Prolonged use of prednisone can interfere with calcium absorption and increase bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis.
Hypoglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. In fact, prednisone can cause hyperglycemia and increase the risk of developing diabetes.
Hyperreflexia (B) is not typically associated with prednisone use. Hyperreflexia is an exaggerated reflex response and is not a common adverse effect of corticosteroid therapy.
Inflammatory bowel disease (D) is not an adverse effect of prednisone. In fact, prednisone is often used as a treatment for inflammatory bowel disease to reduce inflammation and symptoms.
Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for the development of osteoporosis when receiving long-term treatment with oral doses of prednisone.
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