A nurse discovers that a client has been administered a higher dose of oxybutynin than the prescription indicates. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Increased salivation
Hyperthermia Urinary incontinence
Urinary incontinence
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is D
Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat urinary incontinence. One of the adverse effects of anticholinergic medications is the potential for bradycardia, which refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for regulating various bodily functions, including heart rate. Therefore, it is important to assess the client for signs of bradycardia after an unintended higher dose of oxybutynin.
Increased salivation (A) is not an expected adverse effect of oxybutynin. In fact, anticholinergic medications like oxybutynin often have the opposite effect, causing dry mouth and reduced salivation.
Hyperthermia (B) is not a typical adverse effect of oxybutynin. It is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications.
Urinary incontinence (C) is the condition that oxybutynin is intended to treat. It is not an adverse effect but rather the therapeutic effect of the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat fluid volume excess by promoting diuresis. One of the expected outcomes of furosemide administration is an increased urinary output as excess fluid is eliminated from the body. Therefore, if the medication has been effective, the nurse would expect to see an increased urinary output as a result of the diuretic effect.
Increased respiratory rate (B) is not an expected outcome of furosemide administration. It may occur in some cases due to increased fluid elimination and potential electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
Decreased blood pressure (C) is a possible outcome of furosemide administration due to the diuretic effect and subsequent reduction in fluid volume. However, it is not the most specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this case.
Increased pulse (D) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of furosemide. In fact, furosemide can sometimes cause a decrease in heart rate due to its impact on fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. History of asthma:Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and does not affect the airways or cause bronchospasm, unlike beta-blockers, which can exacerbate asthma.
B. History of heart failure:Verapamil has negative inotropic effects, meaning it decreases the strength of heart contractions. This can exacerbate heart failure, particularly in clients with reduced ejection fraction (systolic heart failure). It is generally contraindicated in clients with severe heart failure as it can worsen symptoms.
C. Systolic BP 110 mm Hg:While verapamil can cause a drop in blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg is not an absolute contraindication.
D. A blood creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (approximately 0.6–1.2 mg/dL for adults). Verapamil is not contraindicated in clients with normal renal function.
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