A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Lorazepam
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Clonazepam
The Correct Answer is A
A. Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line medication for treating status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action. It acts by enhancing the effect of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, helping to quickly stop continuous seizure activity.
B. Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is used for long-term seizure control, particularly in partial seizures, but it is not appropriate for emergency treatment of status epilepticus due to its slower onset of action and oral route of administration.
C. Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is also used for chronic seizure management, including generalized and partial seizures. However, it is not effective in acute seizure emergencies and is typically not administered intravenously.
D. Clonazepam. While clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used to manage seizures, it is generally used for maintenance therapy. It lacks the fast-acting IV formulation preferred in treating status epilepticus, unlike lorazepam.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hyperthyroidism. This condition is not a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives. Women with hyperthyroidism can generally use hormonal contraceptives safely under medical supervision.
B. Hypocalcemia. Low calcium levels are not linked to increased risk with combination oral contraceptives and do not contraindicate their use.
C. Thrombophlebitis. This condition involves inflammation and clot formation in the veins, and is a major contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. These medications increase the risk of blood clots, making them unsafe for clients with current or prior thromboembolic disorders.
D. Diverticulosis. This gastrointestinal condition is not affected by hormone levels and is not a contraindication to combination oral contraceptive use.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. The client engages in quiet activities in their room. While this may seem positive, it is not a reliable indicator of improvement in this context. It could suggest withdrawal or sedation rather than clinical stabilization. Further assessment would be needed to determine its significance.
B. The client slept 5 hr the previous night. This is a clear sign of improvement. The client had not slept for 2 days previously, and sleep is one of the first indicators of recovery in clients experiencing mania. Restorative sleep helps stabilize mood and reduce disorganized thinking.
C. The client takes 2 short naps during the day. Napping indicates the client is able to rest voluntarily, which contrasts with their earlier constant movement and hyperactivity. This suggests reduced mania-related agitation and increased capacity for rest.
D. The client appears to listen to unseen others. This behavior reflects ongoing hallucinations, which indicate that the client is still experiencing active psychosis. This is not an improvement and suggests further monitoring and treatment adjustment may be needed.
E. The client consumes 8 oz of high-calorie fluids each hour. Adequate nutrition and hydration are key components of recovery, especially since the client had been unable to recall their last meal and showed signs of dehydration. This is a positive sign of improved self-care and physical stability.
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