A nurse is caring for a male client who is postoperative.
Which of the following client findings should the nurse identify as being consistent with dumping syndrome? Select all that apply.
Vital signs
Prescribed diet
Skin appearance
Blood glucose level
WBC count
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Flush the tubing with 30 mL of water every 4 hr. Flushing the tube regularly helps maintain patency, prevent clogging, and ensure that the feeding is delivered effectively. This is a standard practice in managing enteral feeding systems.
B. Check for gastric residual every 12 hr. Gastric residuals should typically be checked every 4 to 6 hours, or per facility protocol, especially in clients at risk for aspiration. Waiting 12 hours is too long and may delay identifying feeding intolerance.
C. Place enough formula in the container to last 18 hr. Open systems should have fresh formula added every 4 hours to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination. Leaving formula in the feeding bag for 18 hours exceeds safety guidelines and increases infection risk.
D. Maintain bed elevation at 20°. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 to 45 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. A 20° elevation is insufficient and does not provide adequate protection during feeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Social media campaign for survivors of prostate cancer. This targets individuals with a different age demographic and cancer type. Prostate cancer primarily affects older men, while testicular cancer primarily affects younger men.
B. Information booth at a community resource fair for young adults. This is the most appropriate choice, as testicular cancer most commonly affects males between the ages of 15 and 35. Reaching this age group through community events effectively targets the at-risk population.
C. Trifold pamphlets to be distributed at a health fair for older adults. Older adults are not the primary at-risk group for testicular cancer, so this setting would not effectively reach the intended population.
D. Education for clients who experience benign prostatic hypertrophy. BPH is a condition of older men and unrelated to testicular cancer. This would not be an effective or targeted intervention.
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