A nurse is caring for a male client who is postoperative.
Which of the following client findings should the nurse identify as being consistent with dumping syndrome? Select all that apply.
Vital signs
Prescribed diet
Skin appearance
Blood glucose level
WBC count
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ketorolac. This is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in clients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. It should be avoided in this population.
B. Aspirin. Aspirin is also an NSAID and can irritate the gastric lining, increasing the risk of ulceration and bleeding. It is contraindicated in clients with peptic ulcers.
C. Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is the safest option for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not affect the gastric mucosa. It provides effective relief for mild to moderate pain, including headaches.
D. Ibuprofen. Like ketorolac and aspirin, ibuprofen is an NSAID and is not recommended for clients with peptic ulcers due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Aspirin 1 tablet daily. This prescription is incomplete because it does not specify the dose in milligrams. Aspirin comes in multiple strengths, and clarity is essential to ensure safe administration.
B. Furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dosage (20 mg), and frequency (twice daily). It provides all necessary components for safe administration.
C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. This order lacks critical details such as the dosage, frequency, and duration of use. Without this information, the prescription is incomplete and cannot be safely implemented.
D. Metoprolol 5 mg now. Although it includes the medication, dosage, and timing, it does not specify the route (e.g., oral, IV), which is necessary for the prescription to be considered complete.
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