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A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the nurse make in the medical record?

A.

"Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain."

B.

"Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain."

C.

"Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain."

D.

"Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." Including a trailing zero (3.0 mg) is considered unsafe and is discouraged in medication documentation. It increases the risk of a tenfold overdose if the decimal is missed.
B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." This entry uses the correct dosage format without a trailing zero, the full term "subcutaneous" instead of abbreviations, and proper medical terminology. It adheres to safe documentation practices as per The Joint Commission guidelines.
C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SC” is considered unsafe and prone to misinterpretation. Also, "q" for "every" is discouraged in clinical documentation due to potential misreading and error.
D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SQ” can be misinterpreted or mistaken for “5 every” or other terms. Safe practice requires spelling out “subcutaneous” to prevent errors in medication administration.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}

Explanation

  • Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not applicable for this postpartum client. There is no indication of uterine contractions needing suppression.
  • Intravenous antibiotic: The client exhibits signs of postpartum endometritis—including fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and a very high WBC count (33,000/mm³). These findings strongly support the need for IV antibiotics to treat the infection.
  • Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This device is used for managing postpartum hemorrhage, which is not present in this case. The client’s lochia is moderate, not excessive, and her uterus is responding to massage.
  • Kleihauer-Betke test: This test is used to detect fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage, particularly in Rh-negative mothers after trauma or potential placental separation. It is not relevant in the context of postpartum infection.
  • Increase in daily fluid intake: The client is febrile and shows signs of systemic infection. Increased fluids support hydration, promote recovery, and help manage the effects of fever and infection, making this an appropriate supportive measure.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Schedule the client for an aPTT test. An aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) test is used to monitor heparin therapy and is not relevant following an amniocentesis unless the client has a known bleeding disorder, which is not indicated here.
B. Collect a blood sample from the client for a direct Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is typically performed on newborns, not the mother, to detect antibodies attached to red blood cells. It is not a routine part of post-amniocentesis care.
C. Monitor the client for uterine contractions. After an amniocentesis, it is essential to monitor for signs of preterm labor, including uterine contractions. The procedure can irritate the uterus and potentially trigger contractions, especially at 34 weeks gestation.
D. Administer Rho(D) Immune globulin if the client is Rh positive. Rho(D) Immune globulin is given to Rh-negative clients after procedures like amniocentesis to prevent isoimmunization. It is not indicated for Rh-positive individuals.

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