A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the nurse make in the medical record?
"Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain."
"Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain."
"Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain."
"Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." Including a trailing zero (3.0 mg) is considered unsafe and is discouraged in medication documentation. It increases the risk of a tenfold overdose if the decimal is missed.
B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." This entry uses the correct dosage format without a trailing zero, the full term "subcutaneous" instead of abbreviations, and proper medical terminology. It adheres to safe documentation practices as per The Joint Commission guidelines.
C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SC” is considered unsafe and prone to misinterpretation. Also, "q" for "every" is discouraged in clinical documentation due to potential misreading and error.
D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SQ” can be misinterpreted or mistaken for “5 every” or other terms. Safe practice requires spelling out “subcutaneous” to prevent errors in medication administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client calls the office multiple times per day to speak with their provider. This behavior may indicate anxiety or dependence, but it does not reflect rationalization, which involves making excuses to justify behavior.
B. The client states, "I only act this way because my partner makes me so angry." This is a clear example of rationalization, where the client is attempting to justify unacceptable behavior by blaming it on someone else rather than taking personal responsibility.
C. The client does not listen to the nurse during a discussion about their diagnosis. This may indicate denial or avoidance, not rationalization. The client may be overwhelmed and unwilling to accept the diagnosis.
D. The client reports that they get upset with their family members for "no apparent reason." This may suggest emotional dysregulation or projection, but it lacks the clear element of excuse-making that defines rationalization.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Schedule the client for an aPTT test. An aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) test is used to monitor heparin therapy and is not relevant following an amniocentesis unless the client has a known bleeding disorder, which is not indicated here.
B. Collect a blood sample from the client for a direct Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is typically performed on newborns, not the mother, to detect antibodies attached to red blood cells. It is not a routine part of post-amniocentesis care.
C. Monitor the client for uterine contractions. After an amniocentesis, it is essential to monitor for signs of preterm labor, including uterine contractions. The procedure can irritate the uterus and potentially trigger contractions, especially at 34 weeks gestation.
D. Administer Rho(D) Immune globulin if the client is Rh positive. Rho(D) Immune globulin is given to Rh-negative clients after procedures like amniocentesis to prevent isoimmunization. It is not indicated for Rh-positive individuals.
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