A nurse in a community clinic is caring for a client who requests assistance with smoking cessation. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following medications?
Naltrexone
Chlordiazepoxide
Clonidine
Bupropion
The Correct Answer is D
A. Naltrexone. This medication is used for opioid and alcohol use disorders. It helps reduce cravings and the pleasurable effects of those substances but is not indicated for smoking cessation.
B. Chlordiazepoxide. This is a benzodiazepine used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, such as anxiety, tremors, and agitation. It is not appropriate for treating nicotine dependence.
C. Clonidine. Although primarily used for hypertension, clonidine has been used off-label to manage symptoms of opioid or nicotine withdrawal. However, it is not the first-line agent for smoking cessation.
D. Bupropion. This is an antidepressant also approved for smoking cessation. It helps reduce nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms and is often prescribed under the brand name Zyban for this purpose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "You should take a dose every night at bedtime." Sublingual nitroglycerin is not taken on a routine schedule like bedtime. It is used as needed at the onset of chest pain or before activities that might trigger angina, not as a preventive nightly dose.
B. “You should take this medication with food." Sublingual nitroglycerin is placed under the tongue and absorbed directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the gastrointestinal system. It does not require administration with food.
C. "You may repeat a dose after five minutes." If chest pain persists after the first dose, the client may take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to a total of three doses within 15 minutes. If the pain continues after the third dose, emergency services should be contacted.
D. “You may crush this medication if needed." Sublingual tablets should never be crushed or swallowed, as this would prevent proper absorption through the oral mucosa and reduce the medication’s effectiveness in relieving acute chest pain.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
- Deep vein syndrome: This is not a recognized condition. The intended term may have been deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a valid orthopedic complication, but the clinical findings in this scenario point more urgently toward compartment syndrome and infection.
- Osteomyelitis: The client has an open fracture with drainage from the splint, a significantly elevated WBC count (28,000/mm³), and a high fever (38.9°C / 102°F). These findings suggest the development of a bone infection (osteomyelitis), especially in the context of recent surgery and internal fixation.
- Fat embolism syndrome: While fat embolism is a risk with long bone fractures, this client is not displaying key hallmark signs such as respiratory distress, petechiae, or altered mental status. The findings are more consistent with infection and circulatory compromise.
- Compartment syndrome: The client has classic signs including cool foot, numbness, inability to move toes, absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, and increased pain. These are hallmark signs of neurovascular compromise from compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency.
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