A nurse is interviewing the partner of a client who was admitted in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. The partner states, "I don't know what to do. Everything has been happening so quickly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is therapeutic?
"You should make sure your partner takes the prescribed medication."
"You did the right thing by bringing your partner in for treatment."
"Can you talk about what was happening with your partner at home?
"Why do you think your partner's symptoms are progressing so quickly?"
The Correct Answer is C
A. "You should make sure your partner takes the prescribed medication." While medication adherence is important, this response shifts the focus to advice-giving rather than exploring the partner’s emotions or current experience, which limits therapeutic communication.
B. "You did the right thing by bringing your partner in for treatment." Although supportive, this statement closes off the conversation and doesn’t invite the partner to share more about their feelings or the situation at home.
C. "Can you talk about what was happening with your partner at home?" This open-ended, therapeutic response encourages the partner to express their thoughts and emotions, facilitating a better understanding of the client’s condition and the impact it has had on the family.
D. "Why do you think your partner's symptoms are progressing so quickly?" Asking “why” can feel accusatory or put the partner on the defensive. It may also imply blame, which is not helpful in building trust or gathering therapeutic insight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A client who has a forehead wound that is bleeding copiously. Although bleeding may appear dramatic, most scalp wounds bleed heavily and can be controlled with pressure. This is not immediately life-threatening if the client is stable.
B. A client who has a compound fracture of the femur and is crying in pain. This is a serious injury with risk for blood loss and infection, but the client is alert and stable enough to express pain, suggesting less immediate neurologic risk than other clients.
C. A client who was unconscious at the scene and now reports diplopia and nausea. This client likely has a head injury with signs of increased intracranial pressure or concussion (diplopia = double vision, nausea, and prior loss of consciousness). These are neurological red flags and require immediate evaluation to prevent deterioration.
D. A client who has several missing teeth and a swollen, ecchymotic upper lip. While painful and concerning, oral trauma without airway compromise is less urgent than potential brain injury.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "You should take a dose every night at bedtime." Sublingual nitroglycerin is not taken on a routine schedule like bedtime. It is used as needed at the onset of chest pain or before activities that might trigger angina, not as a preventive nightly dose.
B. “You should take this medication with food." Sublingual nitroglycerin is placed under the tongue and absorbed directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the gastrointestinal system. It does not require administration with food.
C. "You may repeat a dose after five minutes." If chest pain persists after the first dose, the client may take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to a total of three doses within 15 minutes. If the pain continues after the third dose, emergency services should be contacted.
D. “You may crush this medication if needed." Sublingual tablets should never be crushed or swallowed, as this would prevent proper absorption through the oral mucosa and reduce the medication’s effectiveness in relieving acute chest pain.
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