A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and reports a slow trickle of vaginal fluid for the past 12 hours.
Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate?
Speculum exam to test for fetal fibronectin.
Vaginal swab for nitrazine testing.
Urinalysis to determine protein content.
Amniocentesis to determine fetal lung maturity.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A speculum exam to test for fetal fibronectin is primarily used to predict the risk of preterm labor in symptomatic women between 22 and 34 weeks of gestation. Since the client is at 37 weeks of gestation (term) and the concern is a slow trickle of fluid suggesting rupture of membranes (ROM), this test is not appropriate for the current clinical presentation or gestational age.
Choice B rationale
Nitrazine testing is a rapid, non-invasive method used to determine if the fluid leaking from the vagina is amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid is alkaline (pH of 7.0 to 7.5) and will turn the yellow-to-orange nitrazine paper to a characteristic deep blue color, which helps confirm the diagnosis of premature rupture of membranes (PROM), a likely cause of the reported fluid trickle.
Choice C rationale
A urinalysis determines components like protein, glucose, and ketones, and is mainly used to screen for conditions such as preeclampsia (indicated by proteinuria) or urinary tract infection (UTI). While part of routine prenatal care, it is not the diagnostic test for confirming ruptured membranes, which is the primary concern given the client's report of a slow trickle of vaginal fluid.
Choice D rationale
Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used to aspirate amniotic fluid, typically to assess fetal lung maturity (L/S ratio) or for genetic testing. Since the client is at 37 weeks and the suspicion is ruptured membranes, which warrants immediate action due to infection risk, the risks and benefits of an amniocentesis for lung maturity are not justified.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.25"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Determine the number of tablets by dividing the prescribed dose by the available dose per tablet. (50 mcg÷ 200 mcg/tablet) = 0.25 tablet. The final calculated answer is 0.25 tablet.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"C"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
🧾 Explanation
- Moderate lochia rubra
- Normal up to 1–2 weeks postpartum. Not related to mastitis.
- Temperature 38.4°C
- Still febrile after 24 hrs of antibiotics → infection not yet controlled.
- Purulent nipple discharge
- New finding. Indicates possible breast abscess or worsening mastitis.
- Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- Stable and within normal range. Not relevant to mastitis progression.
- WBC 35,000/mm³
- Increased from 28,000 → worsening systemic inflammatory response.
- Decreased pain
- Symptomatically better, but this may reflect partial relief from antibiotics/analgesics rather than full resolution. Still, it’s a positive sign.
Summary:
- Improving: Pain relief.
- Unrelated: Lochia rubra, hemoglobin.
- Worsening: Persistent fever, purulent nipple discharge, rising WBC.
This mixed picture suggests partial response but possible complication (breast abscess). The nurse should notify the provider promptly, anticipate breast ultrasound to rule out abscess, and continue close monitoring.
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