A nurse is caring for a female client who is at 42 weeks of gestation in the prenatal clinic.
Fundal height 36 cm at 42 weeks gestation
Cervix closed and thick
Vertex presentation at +1 station
Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge
Fetal heart rate 150/min
Nonstress test nonreactive
Positive Group B Streptococcus culture
Biophysical profile score 8/10
Correct Answer : A,F,G
Choice A rationale: A fundal height of 36 cm at 42 weeks gestation is concerning because fundal height should approximate gestational age in weeks ±2 cm. At 42 weeks, expected measurement is about 40–44 cm. A measurement of 36 cm suggests possible intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or oligohydramnios, both of which are complications associated with post-term pregnancy. This discrepancy requires further evaluation with ultrasound and fetal surveillance to ensure adequate growth and amniotic fluid volume.
Choice B rationale: A cervix that is closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is not an immediate problem requiring intervention. Cervical ripening varies, and although induction may be considered at this gestational age, the cervix itself being closed is not pathologic. It simply indicates that spontaneous labor has not yet begun. This finding does not require urgent intervention but may guide decisions about induction methods such as prostaglandins or mechanical ripening.
Choice C rationale: A vertex presentation at +1 station is a favorable finding. Vertex is the optimal presentation for vaginal delivery, and +1 station indicates that the fetal head is descending into the pelvis. This is reassuring and does not require intervention. It suggests that the fetus is well-positioned for labor and delivery, and no abnormality is present in this assessment.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection or rupture of membranes. Since it is expected and benign, it does not require intervention. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would warrant further evaluation.
Choice E rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the rate is normal and reassuring, it does not require intervention. Continuous monitoring remains important, but this specific finding is not problematic.
Choice F rationale: A nonstress test that is nonreactive is concerning because it indicates that the fetus did not demonstrate adequate accelerations of heart rate with movement. A reactive NST requires at least two accelerations of 15 beats/min above baseline lasting 15 seconds within 20 minutes. A nonreactive result suggests possible fetal hypoxemia, sleep state, or neurologic compromise. This requires further evaluation with a contraction stress test or repeat biophysical profile.
Choice G rationale: A positive Group B Streptococcus culture is abnormal and requires intervention. GBS colonization increases the risk of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis if transmitted during delivery. Standard care is intrapartum prophylaxis with IV penicillin or ampicillin during labor. Since this client is GBS positive, the nurse must ensure that prophylactic antibiotics are administered at the onset of labor or rupture of membranes to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice H rationale: A biophysical profile score of 8/10 is considered reassuring. The BPP assesses fetal breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume, and NST. A score of 8 to 10 indicates normal fetal well-being, while 6 is equivocal and ≤4 is abnormal. Since this client’s score is 8, no immediate intervention is required. This is a reassuring finding and does not indicate fetal compromise.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Delaying the epidural until the client reaches a specific dilation, such as 7 cm, is not based on current standards of pain management; an epidural can be administered at any time during active labor, as long as the client desires it and there are no contraindications. Labor progress is often enhanced, not hindered, by effective pain relief, which reduces catecholamine release and subsequent uterine vasoconstriction, promoting efficient uterine contractions. The decision to administer an epidural is primarily based on maternal request and clinical assessment.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client in a supine position (lying flat on the back) before epidural placement or during labor is contraindicated because the gravid uterus can compress the vena cava and aorta, reducing venous return and subsequently decreasing cardiac output and uteroplacental perfusion. This supine hypotension syndrome can lead to fetal distress. The client should be positioned on their side or sitting upright with feet supported, or with a wedge under the hip to maintain lateral tilt.
Choice C rationale
Administering an intravenous fluid bolus, typically 500 to 1000 mL of an isotonic solution like Lactated Ringer's or 0.9% Sodium Chloride, is a standard prophylactic measure before epidural anesthesia. This fluid load expands the intravascular volume, which helps to mitigate the common side effect of hypotension caused by the sympathetic blockade resulting from the anesthetic agents diffusing into the epidural space and causing peripheral vasodilation.
Choice D rationale
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, which can sometimes occur with labor or as a side effect of opioid use or hypotension associated with epidural placement. However, it is not the primary or most immediate action before an epidural, nor is it a universal prophylactic requirement. The priority before an epidural is the IV fluid bolus to prevent hypotension, which poses a greater immediate risk to the mother and fetus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nausea is a very common, generally mild, and often transient side effect of oral contraceptives, usually caused by the estrogen component. It typically improves over a few cycles as the body adjusts to the hormonal changes and does not usually necessitate immediate notification of the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal bloating is a frequent and minor adverse effect of hormonal contraception, often related to fluid retention or altered gastrointestinal motility due to hormonal fluctuation, which is usually self-limiting or manageable with minor adjustments, thus not requiring urgent reporting.
Choice C rationale
Breast tenderness or mastalgia is a common, dose-related side effect linked to hormonal stimulation (estrogen and/or progestin) of the mammary tissue, similar to premenstrual symptoms, and is generally considered a nuisance rather than an immediate danger sign.
Choice D rationale
Persistent headaches, especially if severe, unilateral, or associated with visual changes, can be a symptom of a serious adverse event like a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) or thrombotic events (e.g., cerebral venous thrombosis), which are rare but serious risks associated with hormonal contraceptives, necessitating immediate medical evaluation.
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