A nurse is assessing a client who has a grade 2 placental abruption.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Fetal heart rate of 150/min with moderate variability.
Painless vaginal bleeding.
Soft abdomen.
Heart rate 120/min.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 150/min with moderate variability is within the normal range (110-160/min) and suggests adequate fetal oxygenation, which is less indicative of a significant Grade 2 abruption. A Grade 2 (moderate) abruption typically involves 20%-50% placental separation, often resulting in fetal distress like persistent late decelerations or tachycardia as a compensatory response to hypoxemia.
Choice B rationale
Placenta previa, not abruption, classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding due to the placenta covering the cervical os. Placental abruption, caused by premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, typically causes bleeding accompanied by significant, severe, and unrelenting abdominal pain due to concealed hemorrhage and uterine irritability.
Choice C rationale
A soft abdomen suggests a relaxed uterus, which is normal. In Grade 2 placental abruption, blood often becomes trapped between the placenta and uterine wall, causing uterine tetany or hypertonicity (increased muscle tone) and rigidity, which presents as a firm or board-like abdomen that is tender to palpation.
Choice D rationale
A heart rate of 120/min (tachycardia) in the client is an expected finding in a moderate (Grade 2) placental abruption. The client is experiencing hypovolemia due to hemorrhage (internal and/or external bleeding), which triggers a compensatory sympathetic nervous system response, increasing the heart rate to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to be NPO (nil per os), or nothing by mouth, is not typically required before an amniocentesis procedure. The client can usually eat and drink normally. Fasting is more commonly associated with procedures involving general anesthesia or those where there is a risk of aspiration, neither of which is routine for an amniocentesis. Clients may be asked to empty their bladder before the procedure to avoid puncturing it.
Choice B rationale
For an Rh-negative client undergoing an amniocentesis, there is a risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage during the procedure, which can lead to the mother's immune system producing Rh antibodies that attack the fetus's red blood cells in the current or future pregnancies. Therefore, administering Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) after the procedure is essential to prevent Rh sensitization. The standard dose is administered within 72 hours of the procedure.
Choice C rationale
Positioning the client in a left lateral position is typically used to promote optimal uteroplacental perfusion or during the second stage of labor. For an amniocentesis, the client is usually positioned in a supine position with a wedge placed under the right hip to slightly tilt the uterus and prevent vena cava compression, providing the provider with a clear anatomical view for ultrasound guidance.
Choice D rationale
The insertion site on the client's abdomen is cleaned with an antiseptic solution, such as povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine, to reduce the risk of introducing bacteria into the sterile field or uterus. Irrigating the site with sterile water is an inappropriate action for skin preparation as it is not a primary antiseptic and may interfere with the effectiveness of the chosen antiseptic solution.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by inducing uterine contractions, but it is not the primary intervention for preeclampsia without severe features, which focuses on blood pressure control and seizure prophylaxis.
Choice B rationale
Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's is generally contraindicated in preeclampsia because it can increase the risk of pulmonary edema due to generalized fluid retention and increased capillary permeability characteristic of the disorder. Fluid management should be conservative.
Choice C rationale
Clonus, which is the presence of rhythmic, involuntary muscle contractions, is a sign of hyperreflexia and central nervous system irritability. It indicates worsening preeclampsia and the potential progression to eclampsia (seizures), necessitating close neurological assessment for timely intervention.
Choice D rationale
Restricting daily oral fluid intake can lead to dehydration and is not a standard or necessary practice for preeclampsia management without severe features, unless there is evidence of pulmonary edema or acute kidney injury. The focus is on careful fluid balance, not routine restriction.
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