A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation.
The nurse should plan to immunize the client with which of the following vaccines? (Select all that apply)
Diphtheria-acellular pertussis.
Human papillomavirus.
Varicella.
Measles, mumps, and rubella.
Inactivated influenza.
Correct Answer : A,E
Choice A rationale
The Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This timing is crucial because it allows for the maternal production and optimal transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies to the fetus. These antibodies provide crucial passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis (whooping cough), which is a severe and potentially fatal disease in infants before they can be directly immunized.
Choice B rationale
The Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. While it is not known to cause adverse fetal effects, it is a recombinant vaccine and, as a precautionary measure, it should be delayed until the postpartum period. Routine HPV vaccination is typically administered to adolescents and young adults up to age 26.
Choice C rationale
The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause congenital varicella syndrome. Women who are non-immune to varicella should receive this vaccine postpartum, before being discharged from the hospital, to protect future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
The Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and subsequent congenital abnormalities, particularly from the rubella component. Women who are not immune to rubella should be vaccinated postpartum and advised to avoid conception for about one month following vaccination.
Choice E rationale
The inactivated influenza (flu shot) vaccine is recommended for all women who are pregnant during the flu season, regardless of their stage of gestation, including at 30 weeks. This is a killed virus vaccine and is considered safe in pregnancy. It protects the mother from severe influenza illness and also provides the newborn with passive immunity in the initial months of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bladder distention upon palpation indicates urinary retention, meaning the client is unable to void effectively or empty the bladder completely. In the postpartum period, a full bladder can inhibit uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage because a distended bladder displaces the uterus, preventing it from clamping down appropriately. The normal range for post-void residual volume is typically less than 100 mL.
Choice B rationale
Not feeling the urge to urinate may be due to decreased bladder sensation following labor and delivery or effects of regional anesthesia, which can lead to urinary retention. Effective voiding is characterized by the ability to sense the urge to void, initiate urination, and empty the bladder, typically passing at least 150 mL per void after catheter removal.
Choice C rationale
Lateral displacement of the uterus is a common sign of a distended bladder. A full bladder pushes the uterus out of its normal midline position, impairing its ability to contract effectively, which increases the risk for uterine atony and subsequent postpartum hemorrhage. The fundus should remain firm and in the midline position after effective voiding.
Choice D rationale
The firming of the fundus with massage indicates that the uterus is contracting, which is essential for preventing postpartum hemorrhage by compressing the blood vessels at the placental site. Effective voiding allows the uterus to remain in its midline position, facilitating proper involution and contractility, which is reflected by a firm fundus.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Body tremors are a key indicator of central nervous system (CNS) hyperirritability, which is a major component of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) following in utero exposure to opioids like heroin. The newborn's immature CNS struggles to adapt after the abrupt cessation of the drug, leading to uncoordinated, jerky movements, exaggerated reflexes, and generalized irritability.
Choice B rationale
Tachypneic respirations (respiratory rate greater than 60 breaths/min) are a common sign of NAS. This occurs due to the dysregulation of the autonomic nervous system and increased metabolic rate associated with the hyperirritable state. Other respiratory signs include flaring, retractions, and frequent yawning or sneezing, reflecting CNS overstimulation.
Choice C rationale
The hyperirritability of the CNS in NAS typically leads to increased and exaggerated reflexes (hyperreflexia), such as a hyperactive Moro reflex, not decreased reflexes. Decreased reflexes would suggest CNS depression, which is characteristic of acute opioid intoxication, not the withdrawal state of NAS.
Choice D rationale
Newborns experiencing NAS are characterized by CNS hyperstimulation, leading to excessive wakefulness, irritability, and an inability to be consoled, often referred to as hyperactivity or agitation. Extreme lethargy and hypoactivity are signs of CNS depression or severe illness, which is contrary to the expected presentation of NAS.
Choice E rationale
The hyper-responsiveness of the newborn's CNS in NAS causes a characteristic high-pitched, non-stop, inconsolable crying. This shrill, distressed cry is due to the sustained state of irritability and neurological overstimulation, representing a significant manifestation of withdrawal symptoms that is distressing to both the newborn and the caregivers.
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