A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation.
The nurse should plan to immunize the client with which of the following vaccines? (Select all that apply)
Diphtheria-acellular pertussis.
Human papillomavirus.
Varicella.
Measles, mumps, and rubella.
Inactivated influenza.
Correct Answer : A,E
Choice A rationale
The Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This timing is crucial because it allows for the maternal production and optimal transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies to the fetus. These antibodies provide crucial passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis (whooping cough), which is a severe and potentially fatal disease in infants before they can be directly immunized.
Choice B rationale
The Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. While it is not known to cause adverse fetal effects, it is a recombinant vaccine and, as a precautionary measure, it should be delayed until the postpartum period. Routine HPV vaccination is typically administered to adolescents and young adults up to age 26.
Choice C rationale
The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause congenital varicella syndrome. Women who are non-immune to varicella should receive this vaccine postpartum, before being discharged from the hospital, to protect future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
The Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and subsequent congenital abnormalities, particularly from the rubella component. Women who are not immune to rubella should be vaccinated postpartum and advised to avoid conception for about one month following vaccination.
Choice E rationale
The inactivated influenza (flu shot) vaccine is recommended for all women who are pregnant during the flu season, regardless of their stage of gestation, including at 30 weeks. This is a killed virus vaccine and is considered safe in pregnancy. It protects the mother from severe influenza illness and also provides the newborn with passive immunity in the initial months of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
For a client with moderate abruptio placenta, which involves premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, the primary concern is fetal well-being due to impaired oxygen and nutrient exchange, and maternal hemorrhage. Therefore, continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings is a priority to assess for signs of fetal compromise (e.g., late decelerations, bradycardia, nonreassuring patterns) and determine the urgency for delivery.
Choice B rationale
Ferning is a microscopic test where a sample of vaginal fluid is allowed to dry on a slide; the characteristic fern pattern indicates the presence of amniotic fluid. This test is used to confirm rupture of membranes. This is not the immediate priority intervention for abruptio placenta, which is focused on managing hemorrhage and fetal distress, and a vaginal examination may be contraindicated if bleeding is severe.
Choice C rationale
Assessing for cervical dilation requires a vaginal examination. While important for determining labor progression, a vaginal examination is often contraindicated in the setting of unexplained vaginal bleeding until a placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as a digital exam could potentially cause a severe hemorrhage if the placenta is covering the cervix. The FHR is a higher priority.
Choice D rationale
Administering oxytocin is a uterotonic agent used to induce or augment labor. In moderate to severe abruptio placenta, if the client is not in active labor or the bleeding is significant, emergency cesarean delivery might be required. Furthermore, the goal is often to deliver the fetus as quickly and safely as possible; oxytocin is not the initial management and could increase uterine tone, potentially worsening the abruption if not used carefully under close monitoring.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
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