A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation.
The nurse should plan to immunize the client with which of the following vaccines? (Select all that apply)
Diphtheria-acellular pertussis.
Human papillomavirus.
Varicella.
Measles, mumps, and rubella.
Inactivated influenza.
Correct Answer : A,E
Choice A rationale
The Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This timing is crucial because it allows for the maternal production and optimal transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies to the fetus. These antibodies provide crucial passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis (whooping cough), which is a severe and potentially fatal disease in infants before they can be directly immunized.
Choice B rationale
The Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. While it is not known to cause adverse fetal effects, it is a recombinant vaccine and, as a precautionary measure, it should be delayed until the postpartum period. Routine HPV vaccination is typically administered to adolescents and young adults up to age 26.
Choice C rationale
The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause congenital varicella syndrome. Women who are non-immune to varicella should receive this vaccine postpartum, before being discharged from the hospital, to protect future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
The Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and subsequent congenital abnormalities, particularly from the rubella component. Women who are not immune to rubella should be vaccinated postpartum and advised to avoid conception for about one month following vaccination.
Choice E rationale
The inactivated influenza (flu shot) vaccine is recommended for all women who are pregnant during the flu season, regardless of their stage of gestation, including at 30 weeks. This is a killed virus vaccine and is considered safe in pregnancy. It protects the mother from severe influenza illness and also provides the newborn with passive immunity in the initial months of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are applied preoperatively to promote venous return and prevent venous stasis in the lower extremities, significantly reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and subsequent pulmonary embolism (PE), which are critical concerns during and after major surgery like a cesarean birth. Prophylaxis should commence before the operation for maximal effect.
Choice B rationale
An indwelling urinary catheter is typically inserted prior to the cesarean section, after the client receives regional anesthesia, to ensure the bladder is empty during the procedure, preventing injury to the bladder by the surgeon and maintaining a clear surgical field. It is not delayed until immediately following the procedure.
Choice C rationale
Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent administered post-delivery of the placenta (not prior to the procedure) via continuous IV infusion to stimulate uterine contractions, which is crucial for preventing postpartum hemorrhage by promoting myometrial contraction and vessel constriction.
Choice D rationale
The surgical timeout, a critical patient safety measure that verifies the correct patient, procedure, and surgical site, is performed by the entire surgical team immediately prior to the incision, typically after the client enters the operating room and is prepped, not while they are in the preoperative holding area.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hemorrhagic shock results from significant blood loss, leading to decreased circulating blood volume and subsequent hypotension. Therefore, hypertension is not expected; instead, the nurse should anticipate hypotension as a classic sign, indicating the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing to maintain adequate perfusion. Systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg is a common indicator of shock.
Choice B rationale
Initial compensatory mechanisms in shock, driven by the sympathetic nervous system, usually include tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) to enhance oxygenation and address resulting metabolic acidosis. Bradypnea (abnormally slow respiratory rate, normal 12-20 breaths/min) is a late and ominous sign, reflecting profound central nervous system depression and circulatory failure.
Choice C rationale
Tachycardia (heart rate >100 beats/min) is an early and compensatory sign of hemorrhagic shock, triggered by the release of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine). The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate and contractility to compensate for the reduced stroke volume caused by the hypovolemia and maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Hemorrhagic shock causes a severe reduction in renal blood flow due to vasoconstriction and low systemic pressure. This results in oliguria (urine output <30 mL/hr) or anuria, not polyuria. Decreased urine output is a critical indicator of inadequate perfusion to the kidneys and is a classic finding in progressing shock.
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