A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.".
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like.".
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.".
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Bright, red vaginal discharge is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. Instead, it can be indicative of other conditions such as miscarriage or vaginal bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
A scaphoid abdomen is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. A scaphoid abdomen is seen in cases of diaphragmatic hernia, where the abdominal organs move into the chest cavity, leaving the abdomen with a sunken appearance.
Choice C rationale:
Elevated blood pressure is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. High blood pressure can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but is not specifically linked to ectopic pregnancies.
Choice D rationale:
Sharp pelvic pain is a common manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. As the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube, it can cause pain and discomfort.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice Arationale:
Offering the client a sitz bath may provide some relief, but it does not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. The priority is to address the bladder distention directly.
Choice Brationale:
Inserting a urinary catheter is not the first-line intervention for bladder distention after vaginal birth. Catheterization carries a risk of infection and trauma, so it should only be done if other interventions are not effective.
Choice C rationale:
Assisting the client to the bathroom is the first action the nurse should take. Bladder distention can occur after birth due to the pressure on the bladder during labour and birth. Encouraging the client to empty her bladder will relieve the distention and promote comfort.
Choice D rationale:
Pouring warm water over the client's perineum might provide some comfort, but it does not address the bladder distention itself.
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