A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.".
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like.".
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.".
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice Arationale:
Offering the client a sitz bath may provide some relief, but it does not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. The priority is to address the bladder distention directly.
Choice Brationale:
Inserting a urinary catheter is not the first-line intervention for bladder distention after vaginal birth. Catheterization carries a risk of infection and trauma, so it should only be done if other interventions are not effective.
Choice C rationale:
Assisting the client to the bathroom is the first action the nurse should take. Bladder distention can occur after birth due to the pressure on the bladder during labour and birth. Encouraging the client to empty her bladder will relieve the distention and promote comfort.
Choice D rationale:
Pouring warm water over the client's perineum might provide some comfort, but it does not address the bladder distention itself.
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