A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.".
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like.".
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.".
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale:
Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.
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