A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.".
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like.".
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.".
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Thiazide diuretics cause potassium and chloride loss, leading to metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory alkalosis. Hypokalemia decreases hydrogen ion excretion, increasing bicarbonate levels. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by pH >7.45 and HCO₃⁻ >26 mEq/L rather than decreased PaCO₂.
Choice B rationale: Vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis due to gastric acid loss. Hydrogen ion depletion increases bicarbonate concentration, shifting pH above normal. Arterial blood gases typically show increased HCO₃⁻ (>26 mEq/L) with a compensatory increase in PaCO₂ (>45 mmHg), not respiratory alkalosis.
Choice C rationale: Salicylate intoxication initially induces hyperventilation, reducing PaCO₂ levels below 35 mmHg and increasing pH above 7.45, leading to respiratory alkalosis. As toxicity progresses, metabolic acidosis may develop due to lactic acid accumulation, but early stages primarily present with respiratory alkalosis.
Choice D rationale: Hypoventilation leads to CO₂ retention, increasing PaCO₂ above 45 mmHg, forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) and causing respiratory acidosis. Blood gases show pH <7.35 with elevated PaCO₂, not respiratory alkalosis, which is caused by excessive CO₂ elimination through hyperventilation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication during labor or immediately after delivery, where amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enter the mother's bloodstream and cause a severe reaction. While it may present with sudden and severe symptoms, such as hypotension and respiratory distress, it does not typically cause uterine rupture.
Choice B rationale:
Uterine rupture is a life-threatening emergency that can occur during labor, especially in women with previous uterine surgeries or trauma. The sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, drop in blood pressure, cool skin, and pallor could indicate internal bleeding and shock, which are consistent with uterine rupture. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing suggests fetal distress due to compromised blood flow.
Choice C rationale:
Umbilical cord prolapse is another obstetric emergency that occurs when the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and gets compressed during labor, leading to fetal distress. It may cause variable decelerations in fetal heart rate, but it does not explain the maternal symptoms described in the scenario, such as the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it can lead to painless vaginal bleeding. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not explain the maternal symptoms like the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing is more suggestive of uterine rupture.
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