A nurse is caring for a client who is having a vacuum-assisted birth.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Inform the client that the vacuum cup will be positioned in front of the fetal ears.
Encourage the client to push during contractions.
Discontinue fetal monitoring during the procedure.
Administer a fluid bolus to ensure a full bladder during the procedure.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
The vacuum cup for an assisted birth is strategically placed on the fetal occiput, which is the posterior aspect of the fetal skull, not in front of the fetal ears. Proper placement over the posterior fontanelle promotes traction directly on the bone, minimizing the risk of fetal scalp injury and ensuring efficient rotation and descent of the fetal head during traction. Positioning near the ears is incorrect and dangerous.
Choice B rationale
During a vacuum-assisted birth, the client is actively encouraged to push effectively with each uterine contraction, as the vacuum traction is applied only during a contraction. Maternal pushing augments the force of the vacuum device and facilitates the fetal head's descent through the birth canal, maximizing the procedure's success while minimizing the duration and number of pulls required for delivery.
Choice C rationale
Continuous fetal monitoring is absolutely essential throughout a vacuum-assisted birth procedure. It allows the nurse and provider to immediately assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) response to the procedure, identify potential complications like bradycardia or non-reassuring FHR patterns, and guide the discontinuation of the vacuum if fetal compromise is detected.
Choice D rationale
Administering a fluid bolus to ensure a full bladder is contraindicated during labor and birth. An empty bladder is preferred for fetal descent and to prevent obstruction of the birth canal. Furthermore, a full bladder can potentially be damaged by the descending fetal head, making bladder emptying (catheterization) common prior to assisted delivery if necessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Oxygen is typically administered for fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, not routinely for pain management or epidural preparation. The priority before an epidural is often to stabilize maternal blood pressure, as the procedure frequently causes vasodilation and subsequent hypotension due to sympathetic blockade.
Choice B rationale
A key side effect of epidural anesthesia is hypotension caused by peripheral vasodilation from sympathetic nerve blockade. Administering a pre-procedure intravenous (IV) fluid bolus (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer's) increases circulating blood volume, effectively helping to minimize the risk and severity of this common hemodynamic change.
Choice C rationale
Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. While sometimes used for these side effects in labor, it is not the priority action before an epidural. Fluid administration to prevent hypotension is the critical immediate prophylactic measure required for maternal safety.
Choice D rationale
While epidurals are commonly placed in the active phase of labor (usually 4 to 5 cm dilation or more), delaying the procedure until 7 cm is an outdated and arbitrary practice. The timing is determined by maternal request, pain level, and clinical assessment, not a rigid cervical dilation number, as effective pain relief is crucial.
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