Exhibits

The nurse is assessing the client 15 minutes later. How should the nurse interpret the following findings?

Choice A rationale: Verifying that the client has signed an informed consent form is essential before initiating cervical ripening with prostaglandins. Dinoprostone insertion is an invasive procedure with potential risks such as uterine tachysystole, fetal distress, or the need for cesarean delivery. Informed consent ensures that the client understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives, and it fulfills both ethical and legal requirements. Therefore, this intervention must be included in the plan of care prior to medication administration.

Choice B rationale: Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, must be readily available because prostaglandins can cause uterine tachysystole or hyperstimulation, which compromises uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline relaxes uterine smooth muscle, reversing hyperstimulation and preventing fetal hypoxia. Having this medication immediately accessible is a critical safety measure during induction. This aligns with the provider’s order to notify for tachysystole or nonreassuring FHR and ensures rapid intervention if complications arise.

Choice C rationale: Maintaining bed rest for 2 hours after prostaglandin administration is not recommended. The correct evidence-based practice is to keep the client in a side-lying or supine position with a wedge for 30 to 60 minutes to allow absorption of the medication and reduce the risk of expulsion. Prolonged bed rest beyond this period is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate for the plan of care.

Choice D rationale: Dinoprostone (Cervidil, Prepidil) is a prostaglandin E2 analog that requires refrigeration to maintain stability and potency. The medication should be kept refrigerated until just before administration to ensure effectiveness. Improper storage at room temperature for extended periods can degrade the drug, reducing its efficacy in cervical ripening. Therefore, refrigeration until administration is a correct nursing intervention and should be included in the plan of care.

Choice E rationale: Assisting with an amniotomy before prostaglandin placement is not appropriate. Prostaglandins are used to ripen the cervix before oxytocin induction, and amniotomy is typically performed later to augment labor once the cervix is favorable. Performing an amniotomy prematurely increases the risk of infection, cord prolapse, and fetal distress. Since the membranes are intact and the cervix is closed and thick, prostaglandin ripening is indicated first, not amniotomy.

Choice F rationale: Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside is necessary when administering magnesium sulfate, not prostaglandins. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, which causes respiratory depression and cardiac complications. Since this client is not receiving magnesium sulfate, calcium gluconate is not relevant to the current plan of care. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate in this context.

Choice G rationale: Having the client void before insertion of the prostaglandin is correct. An empty bladder reduces the risk of bladder injury during insertion, improves maternal comfort, and prevents urinary retention while the client remains in the side-lying position for 30 to 60 minutes after administration. This intervention is specifically ordered by the provider and is a standard nursing action to optimize safety and comfort during cervical ripening.

Choice A rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the recommended treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during pregnancy. Untreated gonorrhea increases the risk of chorioamnionitis, preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, and neonatal complications such as ophthalmia neonatorum. Ceftriaxone is safe in pregnancy and effective against gonorrhea. Prompt treatment prevents maternal complications and vertical transmission to the neonate. Therefore, administration of ceftriaxone IM is the correct nursing action in this case.

Choice B rationale: A blood culture is not indicated for a localized gonorrhea infection. Blood cultures are obtained when systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not the case here. The client is asymptomatic aside from the positive culture result, with no fever, chills, or systemic signs of bacteremia. Therefore, obtaining a blood culture would not be an appropriate or necessary intervention in this scenario.

Choice C rationale: The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy because of the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. Women who are non-immune to rubella, as indicated by a titer less than 1:8, should be vaccinated postpartum before discharge to prevent infection in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine during pregnancy is unsafe and therefore not an appropriate action at this time.

Choice D rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to assess for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. At 12 weeks, it is too early to obtain this specimen, and the result would not be reliable. Therefore, ordering MSAFP at this gestational age is inappropriate. The correct timing should be discussed and scheduled for later in the pregnancy.