A nurse is caring for a female client who is at 12 weeks of gestation in the prenatal clinic.

Exhibits

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Choice A rationale

Bladder distention upon palpation indicates urinary retention, meaning the client is unable to void effectively or empty the bladder completely. In the postpartum period, a full bladder can inhibit uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage because a distended bladder displaces the uterus, preventing it from clamping down appropriately. The normal range for post-void residual volume is typically less than 100 mL.

Choice B rationale

Not feeling the urge to urinate may be due to decreased bladder sensation following labor and delivery or effects of regional anesthesia, which can lead to urinary retention. Effective voiding is characterized by the ability to sense the urge to void, initiate urination, and empty the bladder, typically passing at least 150 mL per void after catheter removal.

Choice C rationale

Lateral displacement of the uterus is a common sign of a distended bladder. A full bladder pushes the uterus out of its normal midline position, impairing its ability to contract effectively, which increases the risk for uterine atony and subsequent postpartum hemorrhage. The fundus should remain firm and in the midline position after effective voiding.

Choice D rationale

The firming of the fundus with massage indicates that the uterus is contracting, which is essential for preventing postpartum hemorrhage by compressing the blood vessels at the placental site. Effective voiding allows the uterus to remain in its midline position, facilitating proper involution and contractility, which is reflected by a firm fundus.

Choice A rationale: Verifying that the client has signed an informed consent form is essential before initiating cervical ripening with prostaglandins. Dinoprostone insertion is an invasive procedure with potential risks such as uterine tachysystole, fetal distress, or the need for cesarean delivery. Informed consent ensures that the client understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives, and it fulfills both ethical and legal requirements. Therefore, this intervention must be included in the plan of care prior to medication administration.

Choice B rationale: Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, must be readily available because prostaglandins can cause uterine tachysystole or hyperstimulation, which compromises uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline relaxes uterine smooth muscle, reversing hyperstimulation and preventing fetal hypoxia. Having this medication immediately accessible is a critical safety measure during induction. This aligns with the provider’s order to notify for tachysystole or nonreassuring FHR and ensures rapid intervention if complications arise.

Choice C rationale: Maintaining bed rest for 2 hours after prostaglandin administration is not recommended. The correct evidence-based practice is to keep the client in a side-lying or supine position with a wedge for 30 to 60 minutes to allow absorption of the medication and reduce the risk of expulsion. Prolonged bed rest beyond this period is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate for the plan of care.

Choice D rationale: Dinoprostone (Cervidil, Prepidil) is a prostaglandin E2 analog that requires refrigeration to maintain stability and potency. The medication should be kept refrigerated until just before administration to ensure effectiveness. Improper storage at room temperature for extended periods can degrade the drug, reducing its efficacy in cervical ripening. Therefore, refrigeration until administration is a correct nursing intervention and should be included in the plan of care.

Choice E rationale: Assisting with an amniotomy before prostaglandin placement is not appropriate. Prostaglandins are used to ripen the cervix before oxytocin induction, and amniotomy is typically performed later to augment labor once the cervix is favorable. Performing an amniotomy prematurely increases the risk of infection, cord prolapse, and fetal distress. Since the membranes are intact and the cervix is closed and thick, prostaglandin ripening is indicated first, not amniotomy.

Choice F rationale: Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside is necessary when administering magnesium sulfate, not prostaglandins. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, which causes respiratory depression and cardiac complications. Since this client is not receiving magnesium sulfate, calcium gluconate is not relevant to the current plan of care. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate in this context.

Choice G rationale: Having the client void before insertion of the prostaglandin is correct. An empty bladder reduces the risk of bladder injury during insertion, improves maternal comfort, and prevents urinary retention while the client remains in the side-lying position for 30 to 60 minutes after administration. This intervention is specifically ordered by the provider and is a standard nursing action to optimize safety and comfort during cervical ripening.