A nurse is caring for a female client who is at 12 weeks of gestation in the prenatal clinic.
Administer ceftriaxone IM.
Obtain a blood culture.
Administer rubella vaccine.
Obtain a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein specimen.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the recommended treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during pregnancy. Untreated gonorrhea increases the risk of chorioamnionitis, preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, and neonatal complications such as ophthalmia neonatorum. Ceftriaxone is safe in pregnancy and effective against gonorrhea. Prompt treatment prevents maternal complications and vertical transmission to the neonate. Therefore, administration of ceftriaxone IM is the correct nursing action in this case.
Choice B rationale: A blood culture is not indicated for a localized gonorrhea infection. Blood cultures are obtained when systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not the case here. The client is asymptomatic aside from the positive culture result, with no fever, chills, or systemic signs of bacteremia. Therefore, obtaining a blood culture would not be an appropriate or necessary intervention in this scenario.
Choice C rationale: The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy because of the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. Women who are non-immune to rubella, as indicated by a titer less than 1:8, should be vaccinated postpartum before discharge to prevent infection in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine during pregnancy is unsafe and therefore not an appropriate action at this time.
Choice D rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to assess for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. At 12 weeks, it is too early to obtain this specimen, and the result would not be reliable. Therefore, ordering MSAFP at this gestational age is inappropriate. The correct timing should be discussed and scheduled for later in the pregnancy.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nausea is a very common, generally mild, and often transient side effect of oral contraceptives, usually caused by the estrogen component. It typically improves over a few cycles as the body adjusts to the hormonal changes and does not usually necessitate immediate notification of the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal bloating is a frequent and minor adverse effect of hormonal contraception, often related to fluid retention or altered gastrointestinal motility due to hormonal fluctuation, which is usually self-limiting or manageable with minor adjustments, thus not requiring urgent reporting.
Choice C rationale
Breast tenderness or mastalgia is a common, dose-related side effect linked to hormonal stimulation (estrogen and/or progestin) of the mammary tissue, similar to premenstrual symptoms, and is generally considered a nuisance rather than an immediate danger sign.
Choice D rationale
Persistent headaches, especially if severe, unilateral, or associated with visual changes, can be a symptom of a serious adverse event like a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) or thrombotic events (e.g., cerebral venous thrombosis), which are rare but serious risks associated with hormonal contraceptives, necessitating immediate medical evaluation.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This timing is crucial because it allows for the maternal production and optimal transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies to the fetus. These antibodies provide crucial passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis (whooping cough), which is a severe and potentially fatal disease in infants before they can be directly immunized.
Choice B rationale
The Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. While it is not known to cause adverse fetal effects, it is a recombinant vaccine and, as a precautionary measure, it should be delayed until the postpartum period. Routine HPV vaccination is typically administered to adolescents and young adults up to age 26.
Choice C rationale
The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause congenital varicella syndrome. Women who are non-immune to varicella should receive this vaccine postpartum, before being discharged from the hospital, to protect future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
The Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and subsequent congenital abnormalities, particularly from the rubella component. Women who are not immune to rubella should be vaccinated postpartum and advised to avoid conception for about one month following vaccination.
Choice E rationale
The inactivated influenza (flu shot) vaccine is recommended for all women who are pregnant during the flu season, regardless of their stage of gestation, including at 30 weeks. This is a killed virus vaccine and is considered safe in pregnancy. It protects the mother from severe influenza illness and also provides the newborn with passive immunity in the initial months of life.
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