A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

"This could result in profound bleeding.”

"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”

"This could initiate preterm labor.”

"There is an increased risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A.

Choice A rationale:

An internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause profound bleeding, which is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus.

Choice B rationale:

While there is always a risk of introducing infection during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

Choice C rationale:

An internal examination could potentially initiate preterm labor, but this is not the primary concern with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D.

Choice A rationale:

Rho (D) immunoglobulin is not administered when both the client and the newborn are Rh negative.

Choice B rationale:

Rho (D) immunoglobulin is not administered when both the client and the newborn are Rh positive.

Choice C rationale:

Rho (D) immunoglobulin is not administered when the client is Rh positive and the newborn is Rh negative.

Choice D rationale:

Rho (D) immunoglobulin is administered when the client is Rh negative and the newborn is Rh positive. Therefore, this choice is correct.

A. She did her perineal care independently. B. She is eager to talk about her birth experience. C. She has not asked for anything for pain all day. D. She sits and rocks her infant for long intervals.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. She did her perineal care independently.

Choice A rationale:

Taking the initiative for caring for her newborn independently while managing her own postpartum needs marks the taking-hold phase of infant bonding.

Choice B rationale:

Being eager to talk about her birth experience is more associated with the taking-in phase, not the taking-hold phase.

Choice C rationale:

Not asking for anything for pain all day is not a specific indicator of the taking-hold phase.

Choice D rationale:

Sitting and rocking her infant for long intervals is not a specific indicator of the taking-hold phase.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for Rho (D) immunoglobulin.The nurse should verify which of the following prior to administration?.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a postpartum woman.Which behavior would the nurse interpret as an indication that the woman is entering the taking-hold phase of the postpartum period?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client on the second day postpartum.The client informs the nurse that she is voiding a large volume of urine frequently.Which factor should the nurse identify as a potential cause for urinary frequency?.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum woman.Which behavior would the nurse interpret as an indication that the woman is entering the taking-hold phase of the postpartum period?

Utilize the GTPAL system to classify a woman who is currently 18 weeks pregnant.This is her 4th pregnancy.She gave birth to one baby vaginally at 26 weeks who died, experienced a miscarriage, and has one living child who was delivered at 38 weeks gestation.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?