A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes.”.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A.
Choice A rationale:
An internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause profound bleeding, which is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
While there is always a risk of introducing infection during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.
Choice C rationale:
An internal examination could potentially initiate preterm labor, but this is not the primary concern with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Chronic alcohol use.
Choice A rationale:
Active herpes simplex infection during pregnancy can lead to neonatal herpes, which is a serious condition, but it does not cause the symptoms described.
Choice B rationale:
Chronic cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to premature birth and low birth weight, but it does not typically result in the specific symptoms described.
Choice C rationale:
Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects, which can cause a range of symptoms, but not the specific ones described.
Choice D rationale:
Chronic alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, which includes slow growth, cognitive and intellectual deficits, and the facial abnormalities described.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D.
Choice A rationale:
This statement describes the second stage of labor, not the third. The second stage begins with full cervical dilation and ends with the delivery of the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
The third stage of labor does not end 48 hours after the delivery of the placenta. This choice is incorrect.
Choice C rationale:
While it’s important to ensure no placental fragments remain, the third stage of labor technically ends with the delivery of the placenta, not at this later point.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct definition of the third stage of labor. It begins with the delivery of the fetus and ends with the delivery of the placenta.
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