A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

"This could result in profound bleeding.”

"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”

"This could initiate preterm labor.”

"There is an increased risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A.

Choice A rationale:

An internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause profound bleeding, which is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus.

Choice B rationale:

While there is always a risk of introducing infection during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

Choice C rationale:

An internal examination could potentially initiate preterm labor, but this is not the primary concern with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C.

Choice A rationale:

Generalized vasospasm is not a symptom of abruptio placenta. It is more associated with conditions like preeclampsia.

Choice B rationale:

Abruptio placenta is usually associated with painful dark red vaginal bleeding, not painless bright red bleeding.

Choice C rationale:

“Knife-like” abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding is a classic symptom of abruptio placenta.

Choice D rationale:

Increased fetal movement is not a symptom of abruptio placenta. In fact, fetal movement may decrease due to distress.

A. Active herpes simplex infection. B. Chronic cocaine use. C. Folic acid deficiency. D. Chronic alcohol use. E. Folic acid deficiency.

Correct Answer is D

No explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse has been assigned to assess a pregnant client for abruptio placenta.For which classic manifestation of this condition should the nurse assess?.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A woman gives birth to a small infant with a malformed skull. The infant grows abnormally slowly and shows signs of substantial cognitive and intellectual deficits. The child also has facial abnormalities including a short nose and thin lip that become more striking as it develops.

Correct Answer is D

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?