A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum.
For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding indicates the client's condition has improved or remains unchanged. There must be at least 1 selection in every row. There does not need to be a selection in every column.
Blood pressure
Skin temperature
Fundal assessment
Bleeding
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
- Blood pressure: At 2100, the client’s BP was 90/56 mm Hg, indicating hypotension likely from postpartum hemorrhage. By 2115, BP increased to 108/72 mm Hg, showing improved hemodynamic stability after interventions such as fundal massage, oxytocin administration, and bladder emptying.
- Skin temperature: At both 2100 and 2115, the client’s skin remained cool to the touch. This could indicate ongoing peripheral vasoconstriction or residual hypoperfusion, suggesting that although circulation improved, thermoregulation and peripheral perfusion have not fully normalized.
- Fundal assessment: Initially, the fundus was boggy, deviated to the right, and 2 cm above the umbilicus, indicating uterine atony worsened by bladder distention. After catheterization and uterotonic therapy, the fundus became midline, firm, and at the level of the umbilicus, which is expected postpartum and reduces bleeding risk.
- Bleeding: At 2100, there was heavy lochia rubra saturating a perineal pad in 20 min with passage of a large clot. At 2115, bleeding decreased to a moderate amount of lochia rubra with a few pea-sized clots, indicating that hemorrhage control measures were effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Tell the client, "You seem to be very upset.": Using verbal de-escalation and acknowledging the client’s emotions can help reduce agitation. This approach demonstrates empathy, promotes communication, and can prevent escalation.
B. Use a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client: Personal protective equipment is important for infection control, but it does not address the behavioral escalation or help calm an agitated client.
C. Initiate seclusion protocol: Seclusion is a restrictive intervention used only if the client poses an imminent risk of harm. It is not the first step in managing agitation and should follow attempts at de-escalation.
D. Engage the panic alarm: Activating the panic alarm is appropriate in situations of immediate danger, but for verbal agitation and pacing without aggression, de-escalation is the first intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client is allergic to penicillin: Medication allergies are critical for the nurse and prescriber to know, but they are not directly relevant to occupational therapy planning.
B. The client's parent is in a skilled nursing facility: While this may influence social support, it is not directly relevant to the client’s rehabilitation needs or adaptive strategies for activities of daily living.
C. The client has two small children at home: Knowing family responsibilities can help plan overall care, but the specific home environment is more critical for occupational therapy interventions.
D. The client lives in a two-story home: The home environment, including stairs, affects mobility, accessibility, and safety after amputation. Reporting this information is essential for planning adaptive equipment, home modifications, and safe discharge.
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