A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The Correct Answer is D
A. The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range: While monitoring liver function tests is essential for clients taking isoniazid and rifampin due to
potential hepatotoxicity, normal liver function test results do not necessarily indicate adherence to the medication regimen. Adherence is best assessed by the client's response to treatment, such as improvement in symptoms and resolution of the infection.
B. The client has a positive purified protein derivative test: A positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis but does not provide information about the client's adherence to the medication regimen for tuberculosis treatment. Adherence to treatment is determined by factors such as medication compliance and therapeutic response.
C. The client tests negative for HIV: The client's HIV status is not directly related to adherence to the tuberculosis medication regimen. While co-infection with HIV can impact the management of tuberculosis, testing negative for HIV does not confirm adherence to tuberculosis treatment.
D. The client has a negative sputum culture: A negative sputum culture indicates the absence of viable Mycobacterium tuberculosis organisms in the sputum sample and suggests effective
treatment and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring sputum culture conversion is a key indicator of treatment success in tuberculosis therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Bruxism: Bruxism, or teeth grinding, is a potential adverse effect of citalopram but is generally less severe than confusion. While it should be monitored and reported if severe or persistent, it is not typically considered a priority adverse effect.
B. Confusion: Confusion can indicate a serious adverse reaction or complication, such as serotonin syndrome, which is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like citalopram. Therefore, confusion is the priority adverse effect to report to the provider.
C. Insomnia: Insomnia is a common side effect of citalopram and other SSRIs but is generally less severe than confusion. It should be monitored and reported if severe or persistent, but it is not typically considered a priority adverse effect.
D. Weight loss: Weight loss can occur as a side effect of citalopram but is generally less severe than confusion. It should be monitored and reported if excessive or rapid, but it is not typically considered a priority adverse effect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.While medication verification is important, this is not specific to administering an intermittent IV bolus. It is standard practice for high-alert medications, not routine antibiotics.
B. Flushing the IV site with sterile water prior to connecting the secondary infusion is not standard practice. Normal saline is typically used to maintain patency, but it is not necessary before connecting the secondary infusion.
C.To administer a secondary infusion (e.g., antibiotic), the secondary bag must be hung higher than the primary infusion. This allows gravity to prioritize the secondary infusion through the Y-site.
D. Disconnecting the primary IV infusion to connect the secondary infusion is not correct. The secondary infusion should connect to the primary line without disrupting the ongoing infusion unless otherwise indicated.
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