A nurse is caring for a client who has been brought to the emergency department and is experiencing acute fentanyl toxicity. The nurse should expect to observe which of the following adverse effects in this client?
Elevated heart rate
Hypertension
Pupilary dution
Tachypnea
The Correct Answer is C
A. Elevated heart rate is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids usually have a depressant effect on the cardiovascular system, leading to bradycardia.
B. Hypertension is not a typical effect of opioid toxicity. Opioids often cause hypotension due to vasodilation.
C. Pupillary constriction (miosis).
Acute fentanyl toxicity is associated with opioid overdose, and opioids typically cause miosis (constriction of the pupils). Other common symptoms of opioid toxicity include respiratory depression, sedation, and potentially unconsciousness.
D. Tachypnea is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids tend to depress the respiratory system, leading to respiratory depression and potentially hypoventilation.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stating that the medication will prevent depression is not accurate. Risperidone primarily addresses symptoms of psychosis and does not specifically target depression.
B. Indicating that the medication will improve mood is not the primary purpose of risperidone. Its focus is on managing psychotic symptoms rather than directly impacting mood.
C. Mentioning that the medication will decrease anxiety is not the primary action of risperidone. While it might indirectly reduce anxiety associated with psychotic symptoms, it's not its primary function.
D. "This medication will clear your thinking."
Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication commonly used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. While it won't directly improve mood, decrease anxiety, or prevent depression, it aims to alleviate symptoms related to psychosis, allowing for clearer and more organized thinking by reducing hallucinations and delusions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. History of kidney disease is not as critical for disulfiram administration. The primary concern is related to hepatic metabolism.
B. When the client last drank alcohol is relevant information, but it is not the most critical factor to consider before administering disulfiram. The primary mechanism of disulfiram is to inhibit the breakdown of acetaldehyde, leading to an unpleasant reaction if alcohol is consumed, regardless of when the client last drank.
C. Whether the client has taken disulfiram before is important information, but it does not take precedence over the assessment of liver function. The history of liver disease is more directly related to the potential risks and adverse effects associated with disulfiram use.
D. History of liver disease is crucial to assess before administering disulfiram because disulfiram is metabolized in the liver. Patients with a history of liver disease may have impaired liver function, and the medication may not be well-tolerated or could exacerbate existing liver issues.
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