A nurse is caring for a client who has a serious mental illness and has developed tardive dyskinesia from anti-psychotic medication use. Which of the following adverse effects from anti-psychotic medication use would be expected for the client?
Uncontrolled movements around the mouth
Seizures and tremors
Nause And vomiting
Hallucinations and delusions
The Correct Answer is A
A. Uncontrolled movements around the mouth.
Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect associated with the long-term use of antipsychotic medications, especially first-generation or typical antipsychotics. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, often involving the face, such as uncontrolled movements around the mouth (e.g., lip smacking, puckering, chewing).
B. Seizures and tremors are not typical adverse effects of tardive dyskinesia. They are more commonly associated with other side effects or conditions.
C. Nausea and vomiting are not typically associated with tardive dyskinesia. These symptoms may be side effects of antipsychotic medications, but they are not characteristic of tardive dyskinesia itself.
D. Hallucinations and delusions are not associated with tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia primarily involves involuntary movements and is not related to changes in thought content or perception.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Exploring reasons for her behavior is important for understanding the underlying issues, but the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety.
B. Providing strategies for redirecting violent behavior is a relevant intervention, but it is not the priority in this situation. Safety concerns related to self-harm take precedence.
C. Encouraging the client to talk about her feelings is a valuable therapeutic intervention, but in the context of borderline personality disorder, the immediate priority is to address the risk of self-harm. Once the client's safety is ensured, exploring feelings and developing coping strategies can be part of the ongoing therapeutic process.
D. Protecting the client from self-harm behavior is the priority because individuals with borderline personality disorder are at an increased risk of engaging in self-harming behaviors,
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Planning with the client for how he can better handle frustration is a valuable intervention, but it may not be immediately effective in the midst of heightened agitation. It is better suited for a calmer, more reflective time.
B. Placing the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm (option B) is an option for managing extreme agitation, but it should be used cautiously and as a last resort. Offering medication and attempting verbal de-escalation are generally preferable initial steps.
C. Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
When dealing with a client who is agitated and potentially escalating to a more volatile state, offering an antianxiety medication can be a helpful and immediate intervention to manage acute distress. It can aid in calming the client down and create an environment where other therapeutic interventions can be more effectively implemented.
D. Restraining the client to prevent injury to himself or others (option D) is a highly invasive intervention and should only be considered when there is an imminent risk of harm to the client or others. It is generally not the first choice in managing agitation due to its potential negative impact on the therapeutic relationship and the client's well-being.
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