A nurse is talking with a client who has schizophrenia. Suddenly the client states, "I'm frightened. Do you hear that? The voices are telling me to do terrible things." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
"Why do you think you are hearing the voices?
"What are the voices telling you to do?"
you need to tell the voices to leave you alone."
"You need to understand that there are no voices.
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Why do you think you are hearing the voices?" This question may come across as confrontational and might make the client defensive. It's better to focus on the content of the hallucinations rather than questioning the client's perception.
B. "What are the voices telling you to do?"
This response is appropriate because it acknowledges the client's experience, shows empathy, and encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings. It is important to gather more information about the content of the hallucinations and delusions to understand the client's perception of reality.
C. "You need to tell the voices to leave you alone." This response oversimplifies the experience of hallucinations and may not be helpful. Telling the client to dismiss the voices is unlikely to be effective and may lead to frustration.
D. "You need to understand that there are no voices." Denying the client's experience is not therapeutic. It's essential to validate the client's feelings and explore their subjective experience rather than dismissing it outright.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is not typically used to manage opiate withdrawal. It may help with certain symptoms like insomnia or mild anxiety but is not a primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is commonly used in the treatment of opioid withdrawal. It is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps manage withdrawal symptoms and cravings, providing a more controlled tapering process. Methadone is often used in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder.
C. Benzodiazepines are not typically used as the first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal. They may be considered in specific situations, such as when there is severe anxiety or agitation, but they are generally not the primary choice due to the risk of dependence.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used in the routine management of opioid withdrawal but rather in emergency situations where opioid overdose is suspected.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety. While benzodiazepines can cause sedation and might carry a risk of dependence, they are not typically associated with an increased risk of suicidal ideation compared to antidepressants.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine that might cause drowsiness and sedation. It's not primarily used for anxiety disorders, and it's less associated with increased suicidal risk compared to antidepressants.
C. Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-blocker used for treating conditions like hypertension and anxiety disorders. It's not typically associated with an increased risk of suicide compared to antidepressants.
D. A client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder and takes fluoxetine (Prozac).
Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant that belongs to the class of medications called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). While it's effective for treating OCD, when initiating or adjusting the dosage of an antidepressant like fluoxetine, there can be an increased risk of suicidal ideation or behavior, especially in younger individuals. This risk is particularly prevalent in the initial weeks of treatment or when there are dosage changes.
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