A nurse is conducting a home health visit for an older adult client who lives with family members. The nurse notices that the client has multiple unusual bruises, and, based on several other factors, the nurse suspects that the client has been physically abused. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Check the bruises at the next visit to the client's home.
Follow the agency's guidelines for reporting suspected abuse.
Institute more frequent visits to the client's home.
Arrange referral for family therapy to deal with home stressors.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Checking the bruises at the next visit may delay necessary intervention. If abuse is suspected, immediate action, such as reporting, is essential to protect the client.
B. Following the agency's guidelines for reporting suspected abuse is the priority when abuse is suspected. Reporting abuse to the appropriate authorities, such as adult protective services or law enforcement, is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the older adult.
C. Instituting more frequent visits to the client's home might be part of a safety plan, but it should not be the first action. Reporting suspected abuse is the priority to involve the appropriate authorities.
D. Arranging a referral for family therapy is not the first step in suspected elder abuse. Safety and protection of the older adult take precedence. Once the immediate safety concerns are addressed, additional interventions, such as family therapy, may be considered.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is not typically used to manage opiate withdrawal. It may help with certain symptoms like insomnia or mild anxiety but is not a primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is commonly used in the treatment of opioid withdrawal. It is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps manage withdrawal symptoms and cravings, providing a more controlled tapering process. Methadone is often used in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder.
C. Benzodiazepines are not typically used as the first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal. They may be considered in specific situations, such as when there is severe anxiety or agitation, but they are generally not the primary choice due to the risk of dependence.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used in the routine management of opioid withdrawal but rather in emergency situations where opioid overdose is suspected.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. History of kidney disease is not as critical for disulfiram administration. The primary concern is related to hepatic metabolism.
B. When the client last drank alcohol is relevant information, but it is not the most critical factor to consider before administering disulfiram. The primary mechanism of disulfiram is to inhibit the breakdown of acetaldehyde, leading to an unpleasant reaction if alcohol is consumed, regardless of when the client last drank.
C. Whether the client has taken disulfiram before is important information, but it does not take precedence over the assessment of liver function. The history of liver disease is more directly related to the potential risks and adverse effects associated with disulfiram use.
D. History of liver disease is crucial to assess before administering disulfiram because disulfiram is metabolized in the liver. Patients with a history of liver disease may have impaired liver function, and the medication may not be well-tolerated or could exacerbate existing liver issues.
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