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A nurse is assisting with the care of a 14-year old client in the emergency department (ED) who has anorexia nervosa.

Physical Examination

Client appears preoccupied and displays poor concentration but is oriented X3. Client has very thin appearance, measuring 5 feet 2 inches tall and weighing 42.6 kg (94 lb). This calculates to 81% of ideal target weight. Client skin color is pallor with capillary refill greater than 2 seconds. When asked about fainting, client minimizes it and comments. "I was just tired. it was nothing."

Which of the following 5 findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse?

Sodium level

Blood pressure

Respiratory rate

Capillary refill

Glucose level

Phosphate level

Magnesium level

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,D

A. Sodium level: Correct. Sodium imbalances can have serious consequences, including neurological symptoms. Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte imbalance seen in anorexia nervosa.

B. Blood pressure: Correct. Abnormal blood pressure, especially low blood pressure, can indicate cardiovascular compromise, which is a concern in severe cases of anorexia nervosa.

C. Respiratory rate: Not selected. While monitoring respiratory rate is important, the client's pallor and capillary refill suggest potential issues with peripheral perfusion, making capillary refill more urgent.

D. Capillary refill: Correct. Prolonged capillary refill time is a measure of peripheral perfusion and may indicate poor tissue perfusion, requiring immediate attention.

E. Glucose level: Not selected. While monitoring glucose levels is important, hypoglycemia might not be an immediate concern in this scenario. The client's neurological symptoms may be more related to electrolyte imbalances.

F. Phosphate level: Not selected. Monitoring phosphate levels is important, but severe abnormalities may not require immediate follow-up unless other critical issues are addressed first.

G. Magnesium level: Not selected. Magnesium imbalances are significant but may not require immediate follow-up unless severe abnormalities are noted.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Using opioids to treat hallucinations is not a common reason, as opioids are not typically prescribed for this purpose. Hallucinations might be indicative of another underlying mental health condition that needs assessment and appropriate treatment.

B. Witnessing parents using drugs or alcohol to cope is a risk factor for substance use disorders, but it does not directly explain the client's initiation of opioid use. There may be other contributing factors, such as pain or anxiety.

C. Using opioids to promote sleep and rest is a possibility, especially if the client has chronic pain or anxiety affecting their sleep. Opioids can have sedative effects, which might be appealing to individuals experiencing sleep difficulties. However, treating pain and anxiety is often a primary reason for opioid use in such cases.

D. To treat pain and ease anxiety.
Chronic back pain due to a gymnastics injury and anxiety are identified as pre-existing conditions. The client may have started using opioids to manage chronic pain and potentially as a way to cope with anxiety. Opioids are often prescribed for pain relief, and individuals may misuse them to self-medicate emotional distress.

A. I know you can read it yourself, but will you?" B. "We do this every day. Why are you so angry with me this morning? C. “I expect you to speak to me in a civil tone of voice." D. Fine. Here is the schedule. I expect you to be on time for your therapy sessions.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "I know you can read it yourself, but will you?" This response may escalate the situation and may not effectively address the inappropriate tone. It also has the potential to be perceived as confrontational.

B. "We do this every day. Why are you so angry with me this morning?" This response is somewhat confrontational and may not be as effective in setting clear boundaries. It also focuses on the client's emotion without directly addressing the inappropriate tone.

C. “I expect you to speak to me in a civil tone of voice."

Option C sets clear boundaries and communicates the expectation of respectful communication. Addressing the inappropriate tone of voice is important in working with individuals with borderline personality disorder. It reinforces the importance of maintaining a therapeutic and respectful interaction.

D. "Fine. Here is the schedule. I expect you to be on time for your therapy sessions." While this response provides the information, it doesn't address the issue of the client's disrespectful tone. It's important to address the inappropriate behavior while still providing necessary information.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

As part of the plan of care for a client with borderline personality disorder, the nurse reviews the day's schedule with him each morning. While doing so, the client states. "Why don't you shut up already! I can read it myself, you know!" Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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