A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor?
Arterial blood gases
Blood urea nitrogen
Prothrombin time
Thyroid stimulating hormone
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Arterial blood gases: While ABGs assess respiratory and metabolic balance, they are not routinely monitored for clients on furosemide. This test is more relevant for clients with severe respiratory or acid-base disorders, not as a direct indicator of diuretic therapy effects.
B. Blood urea nitrogen: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can affect kidney function by reducing circulating blood volume. Monitoring BUN helps assess renal perfusion and detect early signs of dehydration or nephrotoxicity associated with diuretic use.
C. Prothrombin time: PT evaluates coagulation status, typically in clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin. Furosemide does not affect clotting pathways, so PT monitoring is unnecessary in this context unless the client is on anticoagulants for another condition.
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone: TSH measures thyroid function but is not influenced by furosemide. There is no established link between furosemide and thyroid activity that would necessitate routine TSH monitoring for clients taking this medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
• Orientation: The client was previously disoriented to time and place, thinking it was 1975 and they were at home. On Day 2, they are alert and fully oriented. This improvement shows enhanced neurological and cognitive status.
• Blood pressure: On Day 1, the client’s BP was 88/50 mm Hg, which indicated hypotension. By Day 2, the BP improved to 132/86 mm Hg. This indicates stabilization of cardiovascular function and better perfusion.
• Temperature: The fever rose to 39.1°C on Day 1 but decreased to 37.7°C on Day 2. This drop suggests the client is responding to treatment and the infectious process is being controlled.
• Hallucinations: On Day 1, the client reported spiders crawling on them, indicating delirium. On Day 2, they deny hallucinations. This improvement shows resolving infection or neuroinflammation.
• WBC count: The WBC count of 14,000/mm³ remains elevated above the normal range and was only assessed on Day 1. Without follow-up labs, it does not indicate improvement.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Your child should have surgery in 7 to 10 days to remove the tumor.": Surgical removal of the tumor is a priority and is usually scheduled promptly after diagnosis, not delayed by a week or more. Early intervention reduces the risk of tumor rupture or metastasis.
B. "You should not palpate your child's abdomen prior to surgery.": Avoiding abdominal palpation is crucial because Wilms’ tumors are highly vascular and encapsulated. Palpation could cause rupture, leading to tumor cell spread into the peritoneal cavity and increasing the risk of metastasis.
C. "You should give your child captopril 200 mg PO daily.": Captopril is not a standard medication in the treatment of Wilms’ tumor. It is an antihypertensive that may be used if the child has associated hypertension, but the dosage listed is excessive for pediatric use and should not be prescribed without specific indications.
D. "Your child will not require further treatment after removal of the tumor.": Most children require additional therapy, such as chemotherapy and/or radiation, depending on tumor staging. Surgical removal alone is rarely curative, particularly in advanced or bilateral cases.
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