A nurse is caring for a client who has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place after surgery for an open reduction and internal fixation. The nurse should understand that the JP drain was placed for which of the following purposes?
To eliminate the need for wound irrigations.
To limit the amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
To prevent fluid from accumulating in the wound.
To provide a means for medication administration.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
The purpose of a Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain is not to eliminate the need for wound irrigations. Wound irrigation is a critical step in wound care that helps remove debris, reduce bacterial load, and create an optimal environment for healing. The JP drain helps manage fluid accumulation but does not replace the need for proper wound irrigation.
Choice B reason:
While a JP drain can help manage bleeding by providing a pathway for blood to exit the wound, its primary purpose is not to limit bleeding. Instead, it is designed to prevent the accumulation of fluids such as blood, serous fluid, and other exudates that can impede healing and increase the risk of infection. Managing bleeding typically involves other interventions such as surgical hemostasis techniques.
Choice C reason:
The primary purpose of a Jackson-Pratt drain is to prevent fluid from accumulating in the wound. After surgery, wounds can produce various fluids, including blood and lymphatic fluid. Accumulation of these fluids can delay healing and increase the risk of infection. The JP drain uses gentle suction to draw these fluids away from the wound site, promoting faster healing and reducing the risk of complications.
Choice D reason:
A JP drain is not typically used to provide a means for medication administration. Medications are usually administered through other routes such as oral, intravenous, or through specialized catheters designed for medication delivery. The JP drain is specifically designed for fluid drainage and not for delivering medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A: Diminished Lung Sounds
Reason: Diminished lung sounds can indicate several serious conditions that require immediate follow-up. In the context of a patient who has just undergone a thoracentesis, diminished lung sounds could suggest a pneumothorax (collapsed lung), which is a known complication of the procedure. Pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. This condition can lead to severe respiratory distress and requires prompt intervention, such as the insertion of a chest tube to re-expand the lung. Additionally, diminished lung sounds could indicate reaccumulation of pleural fluid, which would necessitate further drainage or other interventions.
Choice B: Heart Rate 110/min and Regular
Reason: A heart rate of 110 beats per minute (bpm) is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal resting heart rate range of 60-100 bpm for adults. In elderly patients, a heart rate above 100 bpm can be particularly concerning as it may indicate underlying issues such as hypoxemia (low blood oxygen levels), infection, or cardiac problems. Tachycardia following a thoracentesis could be a sign of respiratory distress or pain, both of which require immediate assessment and management. It is crucial to determine the underlying cause of the elevated heart rate to prevent further complications.
Choice C: Oxygen Saturation of 95%
Reason: An oxygen saturation level of 95% is generally considered within the normal range (95-100%) for healthy individuals. However, in the context of a patient with a history of lung cancer, pleural effusions, and recent thoracentesis, this value might be borderline. While it does not require immediate follow-up, it should be monitored closely. Any further drop in oxygen saturation would necessitate intervention, such as supplemental oxygen or further diagnostic testing to determine the cause of the hypoxemia.
Choice D: Subcutaneous Emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema is the presence of air in the subcutaneous tissue, which can occur as a complication of thoracentesis. It is often identified by a characteristic crackling sensation felt under the skin. This condition can indicate a more serious underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or tracheal injury, both of which require immediate medical attention. Management of subcutaneous emphysema involves addressing the underlying cause, which may include the insertion of a chest tube or other interventions to remove the trapped air and prevent further complications.
Choice E: Trachea Midline
Reason: The trachea being midline is a normal finding and does not require immediate follow-up. A deviation of the trachea to one side can indicate a tension pneumothorax or significant pleural effusion, both of which are medical emergencies. However, in this case, the trachea is midline, suggesting that there is no immediate concern related to tracheal deviation.
Choice F: Puncture Site Dry
Reason: A dry puncture site is a normal finding post-thoracentesis and does not require immediate follow-up. It indicates that there is no active bleeding or significant fluid leakage from the site. The dressing should be monitored for any signs of infection or excessive drainage, but a dry puncture site is generally a positive sign of proper healing.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Applying a heat lamp twice a day is not recommended for treating stage 3 pressure ulcers. Heat lamps can cause burns and further damage to the already compromised skin. The primary goal in treating pressure ulcers is to reduce pressure, keep the area clean, and promote healing. Heat lamps do not contribute to these goals and can potentially worsen the condition.
Choice B reason:
Repositioning the client at least every 2 hours is a crucial intervention for managing stage 3 pressure ulcers. Frequent repositioning helps to alleviate pressure on the affected area, improving blood flow and preventing further tissue damage. This practice is essential in preventing the progression of pressure ulcers and promoting healing. It is one of the most effective strategies in pressure ulcer management.
Choice C reason:
Massaging reddened areas with dressing changes is not advisable. Massaging can cause additional trauma to the skin and underlying tissues, potentially worsening the ulcer. Instead, gentle handling and appropriate wound care techniques should be used to avoid further damage. Massaging can also disrupt the healing process and increase the risk of infection.
Choice D reason:
Cleaning the wound with hydrogen peroxide solution is not recommended for stage 3 pressure ulcers. Hydrogen peroxide can damage healthy tissue and delay the healing process. It is better to use saline or other wound cleaning solutions that are gentle and effective in removing debris without harming the tissue. Proper wound cleaning is essential to prevent infection and promote healing.
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