A nurse is preparing to infuse a 250-mL unit of packed RBCs over 2 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse should adjust the flow rate to deliver how many drops per minute?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["31"]
Step 1: Determine the total volume to be infused.
- Total volume = 250 mL
Step 2: Determine the total time for infusion in minutes.
- Total time = 2 hours
- Convert hours to minutes: 2 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 120 minutes
- Result: 120 minutes
Step 3: Determine the drop factor.
- Drop factor = 15 gtts/mL
Step 4: Calculate the flow rate in drops per minute.
- Flow rate (gtts/min) = (Total volume in mL × Drop factor) ÷ Total time in minutes
- Flow rate (gtts/min) = (250 mL × 15 gtts/mL) ÷ 120 minutes
- Result: (250 × 15) = 3750
- Result: 3750 ÷ 120 = 31.25
Step 5: Round the result to the nearest whole number.
- Rounded result: 31
Final Answer: The nurse should adjust the flow rate to deliver 31 drops per minute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: 90 bpm is the threshold below which the nurse should withhold digoxin for a 6-month-old infant. Digoxin can slow the heart rate, and administering it when the heart rate is already low can increase the risk of bradycardia, a serious heart rhythm disturbance.
Choice B reason: 100 bpm is above the threshold for withholding digoxin in a 6-month-old infant. While it is important to monitor the heart rate, digoxin can be safely administered if the apical heart rate is above 90 bpm.
Choice C reason: 110 bpm is also above the threshold for withholding digoxin. This heart rate indicates that the infant’s heart rate is within a safe range for administering the medication.
Choice D reason: 120 bpm is well above the threshold for withholding digoxin. This heart rate is considered safe for administering the medication, as it indicates the heart rate is not too low.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The statement “Treat clients with an antitoxin” is not the primary initial action for anthrax exposure. Antitoxins are used in cases of severe anthrax infection, particularly inhalational anthrax, to neutralize the toxins produced by Bacillus anthracis. However, the first line of treatment for suspected anthrax exposure is antibiotic therapy to eliminate the bacteria.
Choice B reason:
The statement “Administer antibiotic therapy” is correct. The primary treatment for anthrax exposure is the prompt administration of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin and doxycycline are commonly used antibiotics for treating anthrax. Early antibiotic treatment is crucial to prevent the progression of the disease and reduce the risk of severe complications.
Choice C reason:
The statement “Initiate client decontamination” is not typically necessary for anthrax exposure. Anthrax spores are not easily spread from person to person, and decontamination is generally not required unless there is a significant risk of environmental contamination. The focus should be on administering antibiotics and monitoring the clients for symptoms.
Choice D reason:
The statement “Place the clients in isolation” is incorrect. Anthrax is not contagious and does not spread from person to person. Therefore, isolation is not required for individuals exposed to anthrax. The priority is to provide appropriate medical treatment and monitor for signs of infection.
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