A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of dementia. The client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, and has advance directives. The client is scheduled for a procedure that requires informed consent. Which of the following persons should sign the informed consent?

The client's daughter, who is the primary caregiver

The client

The client's partner

The client's son, who has a durable power of attorney

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. The client's daughter, who is the primary caregiver: While the daughter may be involved in the client's care and decision-making process, the client themselves should provide informed consent if they have decision-making capacity. Informed consent cannot be provided by a caregiver unless legally authorized to do so.

B. The client: The client is alert, oriented, and has advance directives. In this scenario, the client possesses decision-making capacity and is capable of providing informed consent for the procedure. As long as the client is competent and able to understand the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, they are the appropriate person to sign the informed consent document.

C. The client's partner: Unless legally designated as the client's healthcare proxy or legally authorized to provide consent on the client's behalf, the partner should not sign the informed consent document. The client themselves should provide consent if they have decision-making capacity.

D. The client's son, who has a durable power of attorney: While a durable power of attorney grants legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client if they lack decision-making capacity, it does not negate the client's ability to provide informed consent if they are competent to do so. If the client is alert, oriented, and capable of understanding the procedure, they should sign the informed consent document themselves.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Contact: While contact precautions are important for preventing the transmission of infections, they primarily apply to clients with known or suspected infections that can spread through direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment. Protective isolation goes beyond contact precautions and involves comprehensive measures to protect immunocompromised clients from all potential sources of infection.

B) Airborne: Airborne precautions are necessary for clients with infections that spread through the airborne route, such as tuberculosis or measles. While respiratory infections can pose a significant risk to immunocompromised clients, the focus of care for clients after hematopoietic stem-cell transplant is on preventing all types of infections, not just airborne ones.

C) Droplet: Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets expelled when a person coughs, sneezes, or talks, such as influenza or pertussis. While respiratory infections are a concern for immunocompromised clients, the broader approach of protective isolation is more appropriate for clients after hematopoietic stem-cell transplant, as it encompasses all potential routes of infection transmission, not just droplet spread.

D) Protective: Clients who have undergone allogeneic hematopoietic stem-cell transplant are profoundly immunocompromised due to the destruction of their immune system and are highly susceptible to infections. Protective isolation, also known as reverse isolation, is necessary to minimize the risk of infection in these clients. This includes implementing strict infection control measures such as wearing gowns, gloves, masks, and sometimes goggles to prevent exposure to pathogens. Additionally, maintaining a clean environment and limiting visitors and healthcare personnel who may carry infectious agents are essential components of protective isolation.

A. Exposed bone B. Blood filled blisters C. Necrotic subcutaneous tissue D. Partial-thickness skin loss.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Exposed bone: Exposed bone is a manifestation of a stage 4 pressure ulcer, where full-thickness skin loss occurs, exposing muscle, tendon, or bone. In stage 3 pressure ulcers, the skin loss extends into the subcutaneous tissue, but it does not reach the level of exposing underlying structures like bone.

B) Blood-filled blisters: Blood-filled blisters can occur in various stages of pressure ulcers, but they are not specific to stage 3. They may be present in stage 1 or stage 2 pressure ulcers as well.

C) Necrotic subcutaneous tissue: This is the correct manifestation of a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Stage 3 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with visible necrosis or damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The ulcer may appear as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue.

D) Partial-thickness skin loss: Partial-thickness skin loss is characteristic of stage 2 pressure ulcers, where the ulcer extends through the epidermis and into the dermis but does not involve deeper tissue layers like the subcutaneous tissue.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of dementia. The client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, and has advance directives. The client is scheduled for a procedure that requires informed consent. Which of the following persons should sign the informed consent?

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of dementia. The client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, and has advance directives. The client is scheduled for a procedure that requires informed consent. Which of the following persons should sign the informed consent?